Dernières IBM C2010-597 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2010-597
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true when defining an Include association?
A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.
B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.
C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child
in an editable state.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the process to hide a state transition action from view in a form?
A. Select Secondary Action in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
B. Deselect Default Display in the state transition properties in Form Builder
C. Select Secondary Action in the state transition properties in Form Builder.
D. Configure Includes/Excludes in the sub actions properties in Form Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Several organization records appear in reports but do not appear in the Organization hierarchy.
What should be the first item to validate during the troubleshooting process for the records in
question?
A. verify that the records have the required Primary Organization association to the organization's
root node in the hierarchy
B. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Included In and Includes to
other records in the hierarchy
C. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Is Parent Of and Is Child Of
to other records in the hierarchy
D. verify that the records have forward and reverse association strings of Primary Location and
Primary Location Of to other records in the hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.4 A navigation collection is a hierarchical structure that contains what?
A. portal sections
B. navigation items
C. only menu items
D. only related navigation items
Answer: B

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NO.5 How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?
A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.
B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.
C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order
sequence.
D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order
sequence.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In the Data Modeler's Association List what does a red star next to the association indicate?
A. The association is used in a smart section.
B. The association is a dependent association.
C. The association is referenced by a locator field.
D. The association is referenced by a required field.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When a transition occurs to move a record into a tri Active state, the expected behavior is that
the form is in a read-only state. This is not happening. What is the issue with the Read-Only
property?
A. It is not configured in the Sub Action properties.
B. It is not configured in the Form Section properties.
C. It is not configured in the Business Object properties.
D. It is not configured in the State Transition properties for at least one transition.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which workflow type gets executed by an association of two objects?
A. synchronous workflow using temporary data
B. synchronous workflow using permanent data
C. asynchronous workflow using temporary data
D. asynchronous workflow using permanent data
Answer: D

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NO.9 Where are the classifications' hierarchical parents to child associations created?
A. In the Form Builder
B. In the Data Modeler
C. In the Association Manager
D. In the State Family Manager
Answer: B

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NO.10 An existing portal must be modified so that a new navigation collection will display in the
portal. Assuming that a navigation collection of type Quick Links exists and is populated with
navigation items, what additional new element must be created to display this collection in the
existing portal?
A. Portal
B. Portal Section
C. Navigation Item
D. Navigation Collection
Answer: B

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C2010-651 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C2010-651
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3)
Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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NO.3 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.4 To prepare for detailed Reliability’ Centered Maintenance (RCM) analysis, important decisions
need to be made regarding the way equipment is classified from the main system to subsystem
and within unit levels. This must be done in a way that is consistent with the existing maintenance
strategy, tasks, routines, and levels of unit replacement. Which features and functions enable the
classification and navigation through this structure?
A. Drill Down and Classification
B. Drill Down and Select Action
C. Classification and Service Catalog
D. Select Action and Service Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.7 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which industry solution based on IBM Maximo Asset Management provides the ability to record and manage smart meters?
A. IBM Maximo for Utilities
B. IBM Maximo for Government
C. IBM Maximo for Oil and Gas
D. IBM Maximo for Transportation
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C2010-656
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Service Request Management Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Under what circumstance should an incident be made global by checking the Global Incident
check box?
A. when an incident is related to a problem
B. when the Affected By person is a Very Important Person
C. when an incident affects many users or causes other issues
D. when an incident needs to be managed by teams in different countries
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Weight field is used in the calculation of which option when working with questions for
surveys?
A. survey reports
B. user responses
C. question ratings
D. ordering the questions in a survey
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Key Performance Indicator is included with the Service Catalog content?
A. Catalog Orders in Approval
B. Service Catalog Waiting for Approval
C. Catalog Orders in Waiting for Approval
D. Service Catalog Service Requests Waiting for Approval
Answer: D

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NO.4 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which statement is true about escalation activation for
a specific Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. An escalation can be activated if its validation fails.
B. When the status of a SLA is changed, the associated escalation changes status automatically.
C. When the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action is used to activate the escalation, the associated
SLA changes status.
D. When an escalation is created for an active SLA, the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action must
be used to activate the escalation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two methods to place a new Service Request (SR) under a Service Level Agreement
(SLAy? (Choose two.)
A. The SLA is applied with an action within a workflow.
B. Click the Apply SLA action from the Select Action menu.
C. A ticket template includes a SLAt0 be applied to the SR.
D. A SLA is defined as part of the classification used on the SR.
E. The self-service user selects a valid SLA when creating a new SR.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the purpose of selecting the Known Error check box?
A. It copies the problem summary and details to a new Bulletin Board Message for all users to see.
B. It enables the New Row button on the Related Records tab so additional records can be linked to
the problem.
C. It adds the problem to the collection of known errors that service desk agents use to provide
quick resolution to related problems.
D. It removes the current problem from the list being worked by a problem analyst because it is
already being worked with another record.
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a response plan is applied to an existing work order, which two fields will be overwritten on
the work order by the response plan if defined? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Owner Group
E. Service Group
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two calendar types are available to be used with
Service Level Agreements in the Service Level Agreement application? (Choose two.)
A. Time Calendar
B. Custom Calendar
C. Frequency Calendar
D. Applies To Calendar
E. Calculation Calendar
Answer: D,E

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L'avènement de la certification IBM pratique d'examen C2010-939 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2010-939
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Management Database V7.1.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Manage CI Hierarchies dialog?
A.to provide scope for CI promotion.
B.to provide mapping for CI promotion.
C.to provide mapping and scope for CI promotion.
D.to provide mapping, scope, and rules for CI promotion.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is used to configure and run process definitions in CCMDB?
A.Work definition
B.Process definition
C.Process configuration
D.Work Order management
Answer: D

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NO.3 During an impact analysis exercise, which two terminologies are of utmost importance
and subjects of
concern for a working CCMDB environment? (Choose two.)
A.Outage
B.Upgrade in performance
C.Downgrade of performance
D.Increased Change Requests
E.Decreased Change Requests
Answer: AC

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NO.4 What will impact analysis in CCMDB influence?
A.the increase of tasks
B.the creation of Change requests
C.the reduction of Change requests
D.the creation of implementation tasks
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which business object represents a trackable and assignable request for work?
A.a Report
B.an Asset
C.a Workflow
D.a Process Request
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which category of individuals are needed to certify the validity of an impact analysis
for a given
CCMDB environment?
A.Subject Matter Experts
B.Environmental Experts
C.Chief Information Officers
D.Human Resources Officers
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the Tivoli process automation engine of the CCMDB?
A.a platform on which process managers run
B.a platform that networks all process managers to one
C.a single service that helps users connecting to the CCMDB
D.a group of services, each related to a single process manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 When should existing middleware be reused?
A.when reusing existing access policies
B.when a quick CCMDB deployment is top priority
C.when security policies prevent administrator access to new hardware
D.when security policies prevent the creation of a new database or application server
Answer: A

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NO.9 A document needs to be created to show the roles that will be defined when deploying
CCMDB.
What is the primary goal when creating this document?
A.create a list of activities to map to roles
B.create a Work Task Structure of activities
C.identify and map roles to the defined tasks
D.create a Task Breakdown Structure of activities
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the DBMS to be utilized for meeting requirements
B.examine the platform (OS) for the DB server for meeting requirements
C.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which statement is true regarding process managers?
A.Each is a customized version of its Tivoli process automation engine.
B.All process managers run through the Tivoli process automation engine.
C.Each process manager must install its own Tivoli process automation engines for CCMDB.
D.All process managers are run only by the Tivoli process automation engine's administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.12 There was a new Change record submitted. One can track progress of change using
attribute called
Progress. Which statement is true regarding tracking progress of change using an attribute
called
Progress?
A.Progress value can be updated only manually by operator.
B.Progress value can be updated by automated task defined in the Job Plan.
C.Progress value cannot be updated manually; it gets updated only by a dedicated workflow.
D.Progress value will be updated only automatically always when Status attribute is changed
for the
Change record.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the core of the Tivoli process automation engine?
A.a J2EE application running in the WebSphere environment
B.a special standalone application based on Tivoli framework services
C.a Visual Basic application modified by the Maximo development team
D.a Visual Basic application on top of the Tivoli Scripting language and WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.14 What does the Tivoli process automation engine provide to the CCMDB?
A.Workflows
B.Impact Analysis
C.Audit Processes
D.Change Requests
Answer: A

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NO.15 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the OS platform for the TADDM server for meeting requirements
B.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
C.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the hardware specifications for the Windows Administrative console for meeting
requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AD

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NO.16 Which two options are a prerequisite for configuring single sign-on (SSO) so that
users can navigate
between TADDM and CCMDB using SSO? (Choose two.)
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Kerberos
D.Client-authentication
E.File-based repository
Answer: AD

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
The Exhibit shows the top level definition of the Standard Change Job Plan. A user needs to
modify it so
that the Assessment task needs to be completed before Approval can start, and the Approval
and the
Schedule can start in parallel.
How can this be accomplished?
A.set the Approval and Schedule predecessors to 10
B.set the Assessment, Approval, and Schedule predecessors to 10
C.set the Assessment, Approval, and Schedule predecessors to none
D.set the Approval predecessors to 10 and the Schedule predecessors to none
Answer: A

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NO.18 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation?
(Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.install patches and upgrades
C.control user IDs and Security groups
D.install WebSphere Application Servers
E.build CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
Answer: BE

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NO.20 Which component of the CCMDB data layer performs the data discovery and loads
data into a CMDB
based on the Common Data Model.
A.TADDM
B.the Maximo Database
C.the Change Management Module
D.the Configuration Management Module
Answer: A

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NO.21 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change Requests.
The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent
middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.reuse of MS SQL Server as the Database Server
new installation of MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
reuse of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
new installation of IBM TADDM as the topology discovery
B.reuse of DB2 as the Database Server
reuse of IBM Tivoli Directory as the LDAP security control
new installation of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
reuse of BMC Atrium as the topology discovery
C.new installation of DB2 as the Database Server
reuse of Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
new installation of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
reuse of BMC Atrium as the topology discovery
D.new installation of MS SQL Server as the Database Server
reuse of Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
new installation of WebLogic as the J2EE container
new installation of IBM TADDM as the topology discovery
Answer: A

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NO.22 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.map roles to the defined tasks
B.define the level of effort for each task
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation?
(Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.apply language packages
C.deploy CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
D.install patches and updates for required middleware
E.manage CCMDB Application Runtime Information Data
Answer: BC

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NO.24 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which three high-level concepts are related to the Common Data Model? (Choose
three.)
A.Details
B.Classes
C.Schema
D.Attributes
E.Network Addressing
F.Naming Rules and Identification
Answer: BDF

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NO.26 Which two statements are true about the Common Data Model. (Choose two.)
A.The Common Data Model is based on LDAP.
B.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IML.
C.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IdML.
D.The Discovery Library Adapters use SOAP to interface with the Common Data Model.
E.Discovery Library Adapters enable the import and export of data according to the Common
Data Model.
Answer: CE

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NO.27 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change
Requests. The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent
middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.MS SQL Server as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
B.Oracle as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
JBoss Application Server as the J2EE container
C.MySQL as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
D.IBM DB2 as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
WebLogic as the J2EE container
Answer: A

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NO.28 When creating a document to map tasks to roles for a deployment of CCMDB, which
single goal is of
primary importance?
A.create a Role Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
B.create a Task Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
C.create a Work Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
D.create a Responsibility Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which statement is true about TADDM and CCMDB?
A.CCMDB is a required component of TADDM.
B.TADDM is a required component of CCMDB.
C.TADDM and CCMDB must be installed on the same system.
D.CCMDB serves as a discovery tool, while TADDM serves as a data repository.
Answer: B

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NO.30 What is the purpose of auditing CIs?
A.to identify Discovered CIs whose attributes do match the authorized attributes, and to take
steps to
reconcile all child attributes
B.to identify Authorized CIs whose attributes do match the Discovered attributes, and to take
steps to
reconcile all child attributes
C.to identify CIs whose actual status or other attributes do not match the authorized values,
and to take
steps to resolve the variances
D.to identify CIs whose actual status or other attributes do match the authorized values, and
to take steps
to synchronize all child attributes
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P10
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

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NO.1 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.2 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.6 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.11 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.13 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.18 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.19 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.20 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.21 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.24 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.25 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.26 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.27 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.29 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.30 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-W03
Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architeture)
Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

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NO.1 Which zoning type must be used in a heterogeneous fabric with M-Series and B-Series switches?
A.VSAN zoning
B.name server zoning
C.fabric address zoning
D.domain-port-area zoning
Correct:B

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NO.2 You are implementing an extended SAN infrastructure between two data centers which are 9km
apart. HP StorageWorks Edge Switch 2/24 is used in this environment. Which ports could be used
to connect the ISL between this data centers?
A.All ports support links for this distance by default.
B.You must enable the extended ISL ports individually.
C.The first four ports can connect a long-distance ISL.
D.Long-distance ISL ports must be unlocked by a license.
Correct:C

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NO.3 A customer has asked you to implement VSANs in a C-Series fibre channel switch fabric. What
is a unique feature of VSANs?
A.It allows you to apply different fabric settings in one switch.
B.It allows you to connect different vendor switches to one infrastructure.
C.It allows you to configure more than one management IP address per switch.
D.It allows you to minimize oversubscription on connected ISLs through path load balancing.
Correct:A

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.4 During the SAN architecture process, the SAN architect must explain to the stakeholders how
the new infrastructure will be realized. Which information should this explanation contain?
A.options that can be installed at a later time
B.current SAN components that will be utilized
C.details about storage and SAN management
D.overview of HP multivendor support services
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.5 Click the Task button. Match the appropriate migration path to the given SAN topologies by
dragging and dropping the boxes. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete
drag and drop items.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.6 What are typical consequences of insufficient knowledge transfer to the customer for their SAN
environment? (Select two.)
A.unused bandwidth
B.wasted disk space
C.management errors
D.event misinterpretation
E.unnecessary FC data traffic
Correct:C D

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.7 Which fabric migration path is shown in the exhibit?
A.meshed to tree
B.cascaded to tree
C.cascaded to meshed
D.meshed to cascaded
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.8 Click the Task button. Type the appropriate multi-mode cable length for the given fibre channel
speeds.
A.150 300 500
Correct:A

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.9 Which task must be performed prior to starting a merging process between two switches?
(Select two.)
A.Remove duplicated domain IDs.
B.Set port speed of ISL ports to a fixed value.
C.Disable zoning configuration on both switches.
D.Enable the same passwords on both switches.
E.Check to see if the same feature licenses are installed.
Correct:A E

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

NO.10 Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)?
A.on the switch as a license
B.on all servers in the cluster
C.on one cluster server at each site
D.on the same server as Command View
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03   HP0-W03

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Code d'Examen: HP0-081
Nom d'Examen: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

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NO.1 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.2 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.3 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.4 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.5 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.6 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.7 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.8 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.9 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.11 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.12 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.13 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.14 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.15 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.16 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.17 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.18 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.19 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

NO.20 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

HP examen   HP0-081   HP0-081   HP0-081

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