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2013年9月2日星期一

OMG meilleur examen OMG-OCUP-100, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-100
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are some of the important semantics of packages? ose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 What is a relationship in UML 2.0.?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.7 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.9 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? ose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? ose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.14 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.17 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.18 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.19 What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: B,F

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NO.20 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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2013年9月1日星期日

Le plus récent matériel de formation SAP C-TSCM62-65-JP 「C-TSCM62-65日本語版」

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Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 免税品プロセスに関する次のステートメントのどれが正確ですか。
A. 排他的なボーナス量の免税品は、注文された商品と免税品の両方に同じ材料を含まなけ
ればならない。
B. 包括的なボーナス量の免税品は常にサブアイテムなしで生成される。
C. 免税品の計算ルールはユニット全体免税品のボーナス増分を考慮に入れるだけである。
D. 排他的なボーナス量の免税品は常にサブアイテムで生成される。
Answer: D

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NO.2 あなたは、顧客が注文することができる材料を制限することをで望んでいます。これ
を達成するために何を使用しますか。
A. 材料リスト
B. 製品階層
C. 材料グループ
D. 品揃えモジュール
Answer: A

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NO.3 SAP ビジネス? スイートのためのエンタープライズサービス（ES ）は、どのように顧客
に提供されますか。
A. エンハンスメント? パッケージによって
B. アドオンによって
C. サポート? パッケージによって
D. ベスト? プラクティスによって
Answer: A

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NO.4 次の日付のどれに基づいて有効性チェック（ATP ）が行われますか。
A. 希望配達日
B. 補充リード日付
C. 品目使用可能日
D. 出庫日
Answer: C

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NO.5 システムによると、利用可能なストックはありません。しかし、まだ販売注文で確認
されたスケジュール? ラインを受け取ります。この確認の理由は何ですか。
A. 行われた有効性チェックはチェック範囲の補充リードタイムを含んでいた。
B. システムは自動的にインベントリのため他のプラントを探索し、販売注文での無在庫を
備えたプラントにこのインベントリを転送する。
C. 有効性チェックが行われ、省エネに、システムはすぐに顧客のプライオリティーによっ
て販売注文の計画を変更した。
D. 販売注文が保存される場合、在庫管理は株式譲渡を作成する。
Answer: A

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NO.6 どの SAP NetWeaver コンポーネントは、異機種混在の IT 環境でデータおよび情報の
全社的なユニフィケーションを保証しますか。
A. 企業ポータル
B. ナレッジ? マネジメント
C. エンタープライズ検索
D. マスター? データ管理
Answer: D

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NO.7 次の要素のどれが有効性チェックが行なわれるかどうかに直接影響を与えることがで
きますか。（2 つ選択してください）
A. 販売ドキュメント中のスケジュール? ライン? カテゴリー
B. 配達タイプ
C. 品目マスターの中のチェック? グループ
D. 販売ドキュメント中のアイテム? カテゴリー
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 プロジェクト? チームのメンバーとして、販売注文を処理する場合に、ユーザがオーダ
ー理由を入力しなければならないように、あなたはシステムをセット? アップするよう依頼
されます。不完全なオーダーを保存することができなければなりません。しかし、受注理
由フィールドが満たされるまで、更なる処理は可能ではありません。
どのようにこの要求を実行しますか。
A. 注文理由フィールドで不完全手続きを定義し、必須としてそれをマークする。
B. 注文理由フィールドで不完全手続きを定義し、フィールド全般、配達、および販売ドキ
ュメント? タイプが選択されるステータスグループを割り当てる。
C. 注文理由フィールドで不完全手続きを定義し、販売ドキュメント? タイプに割り当て、「さ
らなるプロセス? ステップのためにリリースされる」にステータスを設定する。
D. 注文理由フィールドで不完全手続きを定義し、「不完全メッセージ」インジケータが設定
されている販売ドキュメント? タイプに割り当てる。
Answer: B

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NO.9 受注に入力された材料が使用可能でない場合、ユーザはどのようにこの状況に対して
警告を受けますか。
A. 未完了のログはなくなったスケジュール? ラインとして未確認のスケジュール? ラインを
表示する。
B. 有効性コントロール? スクリーンが表示される。
C. スケジュール? ラインはシステムによってマークされ、ハイライトされる。
D. エラーメッセージが状況についてユーザに警報するステータスバーに現われる。
Answer: B

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NO.10 材料決定に関する次のステートメントのどれが正しいですか。（2 つ選択してください）
A. 代用理由の定義は、手動または自動の置換処理が使用されるべきか否かを判定する。
B. 条件テーブルはカスタマイジング（IMG ）で定義しなければならない。
C. 適切な代用理由はアクセス? シーケンスで指定される。
D. 品目決定手順は、販売地域、顧客価格設定手順、およびドキュメント価格決定手順の組
み合わせに割り当てられる。
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 What are the components of ABAP Workbench.(3 answer)
A. Function builder.
B. Class Builder
C. Screen Painter
D. Two more options.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What is defined in ABAP Dictionary. (3 answer)
A. Type tools.
B. Transparent tables.
C. Domains.
D. Internal tables
E. Methods
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 In a table, when buffering settings are switched on and buffering style is single,What would
be the option .
A. SELECT SINGLE.
B. SELECT SINGLE...... UPDATE
C. SELECT... LOOP
D. One more option
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following part of SAP business suite. (3 Answers)
A. SAP Design By one
B. SAP Design All
C. Product life cycle management
D. ERP
E. CRM
Answer: CDE

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NO.5 There are two classes CL_SUPER and CL_SUB. Class CL_SUPER has method say
SUPER_METHOD and CL_SUB has a method SUB_METHOD.[This q gave me confidence and put me
into confusion!!....what is wrong (TRICKY thing is they dint mention CL_SUB is inherited from
CL_SUPER )].
DATA: GO_SUPER type ref to CL_SUPER,
GO_SUB type ref to CL_SUB.
A. GO_SUPER->SUPER_METHOD.
B. GO_SUPER->SUB_METHOD.(i CHOSE THIS BUT PLEASE READ THE QWELL)
C. GO_SUB->SUB_METHOD.
D. GO_SUB->SUPER_METHOD.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When is the authorization of user checked for entering data.
A. When entered.
B. At selection screen
C. At selection screen Output
D. End of page.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What you can do in class builder.
A. Local class and Local interface from your local program.
B. Redefine classes and interfaces.
C. When you can define global class, you can use in F8 Function.
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 When you press Double_Click, What will happen.
A. Handler class.
B. Handler method.
C. event handler class method triggers
D. 2 more options.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are the parameters of Functional method. (2 answer)
A. Importing
B. Exporting
C. Changing
D. Returning
E. Transporting
Answer: AD

SAP   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71   C-TAW12-71

NO.10 Size of Integer.
A. 8 bytes
B. 6 bytes
C. 4 bytes
D. Assigns as you declare the value.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 200-047
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Certified Integration Engineer Exam for OneFS 6.5)
Questions et réponses: 89 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is supported by NFSv4 on an Isilon cluster? (Choose 3)
A. Oplocks
B. State
C. Windows ACLs
D. TCP
E. UDP
F. NLM
G. Byte range locks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are required to support InsightIQ 2.0? (Choose 2)
A. Product license
B. SMB connectivity
C. File System Analytics
D. Virtualized environment
E. NFS connectivity
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Select the standard ACL policies options? (Choose 4)
A. SMB only
B. UNIX only
C. Balanced
D. NFS only
E. Windows Only
F. Manual Configuration
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.4 In what directory are cluster logs stored?
A. /var/log
B. /ifs
C. /ifs/log$
D. /var/.ifsvar
Answer: A

Isilon   200-047   200-047

NO.5 Which of the following client access protocols are enabled by default on OneFS 6.0 and 6.5?
A. NFS, CIFS & FTP
B. CIFS, FTP & HTTP
C. SMB & NFS
D. NFS, SMB, FTP & HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which node should be assigned the SmartConnect Service IP address?
A. The node with the lowest LNN
B. Only nodes servicing SMB clients
C. All nodes can use the SmartConnect Service IP
D. Only nodes servicing NFS clients
E. None
Answer: E

certification Isilon   200-047   200-047   certification 200-047

NO.7 When a file is saved to an Isilon cluster, which node creates the data and parity stripes?
A. The stripes are assigned to two separate nodes for calculation.
B. The node connected to the client.
C. The node with the least amount of read / write activity.
D. All nodes use Round Robin to take turns calculating the stripes.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is the Active Directory domain identifier used by an Isilon cluster when allocating
SIDs?
A. I-1-144-1
B. I-1-20-2
C. S-1-22-1
D. S-1-20-2
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the on-disk identity type supports both UNIX and Windows clients?
A. CIFS
B. Native
C. Compatible
D. Each on-disk identity supports only one type of client
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer needs to prevent accidental deletion or alteration of critical or archived data. They have
used a WORM storage setup in the past, but are not required to be WORM compliant. What Isilon license
would enable them to have this type of feature?
A. SmartConnect
B. SmartLock
C. SmartSecure
D. SmartCache
Answer: B

Isilon examen   200-047 examen   200-047   200-047

NO.11 What does Isilon s single file system in an Isilon cluster eliminate? (Choose 3)
A. A unified namespace
B. RAID
C. Volumes
D. Multiple local file systems
E. Ease of management
Answer: B,C,D

Isilon examen   200-047 examen   200-047

NO.12 How many Accelerator nodes are recommended per NL node in a cluster?
A. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
B. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
C. 5 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 3 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
D. 4 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
E. 3 NL nodes for the first Accelerator and 4 NL nodes for each additional accelerator
Answer: A

Isilon examen   200-047 examen   200-047   200-047 examen

NO.13 Legacy LDAP does not allow what action on passwords.?
A. Encryption of passwords
B. Unencrypted passwords
C. Transfer of passwords to windows clients
D. Reading of passwords by windows clients
Answer: A

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NO.14 How many NAS heads can an Isilon cluster support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. None. Isilon cluster do not use NAS heads.
Answer: D

Isilon   200-047 examen   200-047 examen   200-047 examen

NO.15 A customer would like a new Isilon cluster. There are two requirements, which are long term storage for
data files and video files that need to be edited. What two node types best serve these needs? (Choose 2)
A. S200
B. S400
C. X400
D. NL400
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: 133-S-713.4
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.2 Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-time
data from the dialer?
A.Event Service
B.STATSPUMP
C.Historical Data Service Component (HDSC)
D.Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS)
Answer:A

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.3 Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.)
A.Contact Management
B.Messages and Scripts
C.Jobs
D.Calling Lists
Answer:B D

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.4 Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions
and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A.UPS
B.CPU
C.digital switch
D.access server
Answer:C

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.5 Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.Avaya CT
B.AES
C.CMS
D.MAPD
Answer:B

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.6 Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B.14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C.41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D.189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer:A

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4 examen   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.7 You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command would you
type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services?
A.enclient -S $NS
B.enclient -A
C.enserver -a
D.enserver -S $NS
Answer:A

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.8 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.9 The local CA certificate for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X agent is stored in which location?
A.password file
B.Microsoft Certificate Store
C.registry
D.My Documents
Answer:B

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.10 Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by
this command?
A.It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
B.It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 12.
D.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
Answer:D

certification Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.11 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A.Moagent32.log
B.Moagent32.dll
C.PCagent32.log
D..log
Answer:A

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.12 Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact
system?
A.PORTS
B.LINEASSIGN
C.QUOTA
D.MAXHIDSLOTS
Answer:D

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.13 A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A.IMONDISPLAY
B.SURFREFRESH
C.IMONREFRESH
D.AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer:C

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.14 Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server?
A./opt/avaya/pds/config
B./opt/avaya/pds/openssl
C./opt/avaya/pds/etc
D./etc
Answer:B

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.15 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

Avaya examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen

NO.16 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4

NO.17 Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact with
CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A.cti_passwd
B.cti_passwd
C.cti_passwd -b
D.cti_passwd
Answer:C D

Avaya   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4 examen   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.18 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on Proactive
Contact with CTI?
A.TN744 Call classifier
B.TN2602 Media interface
C.TN799 C-LAN
D.TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer:A

Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.19 How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A.Remote Copy (RCP)
B.Network File System (NFS)
C.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer:B

certification Avaya   certification 133-S-713.4   certification 133-S-713.4

NO.20 Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A.locale.cfg
B.opmon.cfg
C.dgswitch.cfg
D.phonefmt.cfg
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-911
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 199 Q&As

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NO.1 .A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A. List sys-link
B. Status station
C. Listtrace ras station
D. Use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.2 .A G450 Media Gateway can be controlled directly from an Avaya Server S8500C. What is the
associated license file functionality that needs to be included?
A. Processor Ethernet (PE)
B. PNC Duplication
C. Port Network Support
D. Processor and System MSP

NO.3 .In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to your ESS
server?
A. Savetrans
B. Savetrans all
C. Save ESS settings
D. Savetrans cluster ESS
Answer: A

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.4 .An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799 CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the CLAN.
A DCP phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this
audio quality problem? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient IP media processor resources
B. Use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C. Implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D. Intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer: A,B

Avaya   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911 examen

NO.5 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on VoIP endpoints
B. VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration problems
and call signaling problems
C. the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity of the performance statistics
D. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can be
embedded into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.6 .In an IP Connect configuration, with hardware duplication, a customer has implemented
separation of the control network. What Ethernet port should be assigned to this control network?
A. Ethernet 0
B. Ethernet 1
C. Ethernet 2
D. Ethernet 3

NO.7 .Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G700
Media Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A. Session stack
B. Show interface
C. Show interface mgp
D. Show interface stack manager
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.8 .You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three parameters
can be set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A. H.323 endpoint
B. SIP enabled endpoints
C. hairpinning and shuffling
D. UDP port range parameters
E. QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer: B,C,D

certification Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.9 .When configuring site specific option number (SSON) in DHCP server for an Avaya IP telephone,
"MCIPADD" is the address of the H.323 gatekeeper's IP address. In an Avaya IP telephony
solution, which component acts as the H.323 gatekeeper?
A. IPSI
B. S87xx Server
C. CLANs or S8300 Server
D. Router in the data network
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.10 .Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A. Must have at least five digits
B. Can vary from one device to another
C. Supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D. Remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer: C

Avaya examen   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen

NO.11 .What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Amber
Answer: B

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.12 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a specific
extension active on call? (Choose two.)
A. Status station
B. Display station
C. List trace station
D. Display trace station
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911   certification 132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.13 .You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI board
located?
A. It is always placed into slot number 1.
B. The location depends on which media server is used.
C. It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D. The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-911 examen   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.14 .Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A. QoS parameters
B. A default gateway
C. The far-end network region
D. A TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.15 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four digit
extensions for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A. You insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B. You enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C. You enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D. You enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional first
digit; the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer: C

Avaya examen   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen

NO.16 .Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN bandwidth
limit has been reached?
A. Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B. Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C. Intelligent Global Access Routing
D. Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes

NO.17 .Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. A DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B. A DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C. One DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D. A DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address to
the client
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911 examen

NO.18 .Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using a shared
Intuity voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A. list ip-interfaces
B. list media-gateway
C. display-ip-network-region <x>
D. status station <station number>
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911 examen   certification 132-S-911

NO.19 .A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users complain
that the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B. Improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C. Users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D. Improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.20 .A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years. Knowing that the
IEEE 802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch
to provide in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they
are connected to the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not
receive power from C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which
three methods should you use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A. 356A adapter
B. Individual power brick
C. 1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D. Other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E. IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.21 Prior to putting the system into service, you test the Local Survivable Processor (LSP) failover
capability on the G700 Media Gateway with an S8300 Server. If you unplug the network
connection to the G700 Media Gateway the G700 Media Gateway does not search for a
secondary CLAN or any other LSP. What should you do to ensure that LSP failover has been
properly configured? (Choose two.)
A. You should refresh the IP address
B. You should check the controller IP address
C. You should check the LSP transition points
D. You should run session mgc to bring up the Show Call Control Status screen
Answer: A,B

Avaya examen   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.22 .You have a Communication Manager R3 1 phone system with all IP phones and there is no dial
tone. You verify that all of the hardware is working properly. Which two steps can you take to
identify the cause of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the MedPro board has the correct IP settings
B. Set a static IP address on you laptop and see if you can ping the TN799
C. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2312
D. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2302 or TN2602
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.23 .You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is the
Duplication Link assigned to?
A. Ethernet 1
B. Ethernet 2
C. Ethernet 3
D. Ethernet 4
Answer: A

Avaya examen   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.24 .In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the IPSI that
is in control of that Port Network?
A. Status fiber 18
B. List ipserver-interface
C. Status port-network 18
D. Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen

NO.25 .DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number out of this
range is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 43
D. 63
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

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Code d'Examen: 6401.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Office Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which IP port does Internet Explorer use to access the ContactStore Web page?
A. 8080
B. 8000
C. 8888
D. 8990
Answer: C

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer has two sites, each with an IP Office linked via a private digital line (E1/T1). The head office is
connected to the public network through a digital exchange line. The remote site gains access to the
public network via the head office.
How should Clock Quality be set in the IP Office on the lines marked X and Y in the exhibit?
A. X - Network -- Y - Fallback
B. X ?Fallback -- Y - Fallback
C. X ?Network -- Y - Unsuitable
D. X ?Fallback -- Y - Unsuitable
Answer: C

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.3 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls.
What are three possible reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A. The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B. The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C. The ring volume is too low to hear.
D. The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E. The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.4 A user (ext. 199) reports that their IMS client displays an error message when attempting to ring a
phone. What are three reasons that would prevent the IMS program from calling the phone? (Choose
three.)
A. The user profile in Manager has "199" entered as the user name.
B. The phone is set for "Do Not Disturb".
C. The user's "Multi Line Option" is set to "Answer Pre-select".
D. The user mailbox is set to "Blank" under Outlook Tools/Integrated Messaging.
E. The user's profile has "System Phone" is set to "On".
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.5 Which two e-mail protocols are used by VoiceMail Pro to perform voicemail to e-mail? (Choose two.)
A. POP 3
B. SMTP
C. MAPI
D. IMAP
Answer: B,C

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1

NO.6 When tracing a system with the System Monitor program you notice that the Roll Over Log button is
grayed out. What is causing this?
A. You have not set your log preferences.
B. You have a firewall in place.
C. You are monitoring the wrong system.
D. You have paused the screen logging, and are no longer gathering data.
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.7 When using Small Community Networking which two features require the Small Community Advanced
License to function? (Choose two.)
A. Hot Desking
B. Hot Desking across the SCN
C. playing queued announcements
D. Break Out dialing
Answer: B,D

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

NO.8 Which two are used to turn on Small Community Networking within the main IP Office 500? (Choose
two.)
A. RAS
B. FastStart
C. Voice Networking
D. Professional License Enabled
Answer: C,D

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.9 When using Voice Conference Notification in the Conference Center Software, which three options
does the participant have when they are called? (Choose three.)
A. Wait
B. Accept
C. Decline
D. Join later
E. Participant is unavailable
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.10 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A. on the General tab in the menu action
B. on the General tab for each transfer action
C. on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D. in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer: B

Avaya   6401.1 examen   6401.1   6401.1

NO.11 What line type supports the IP Office R 4.2 mobile call control functionality?
A. IP DECT Line
B. SIP (RFC2833)
C. IP Line (H.323)
D. Analogue Trunk
Answer: B

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

NO.12 How much space does a recording in VoiceMail Pro use on a hard drive?
A. 1MB per minute
B. 500KB per minute
C. 2MB per minute
D. 1.5MB per minute
Answer: A

Avaya examen   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.13 What information do you need from a customer to be able to reproduce a call park problem? (Choose
three.)
A. accurate description of the problem
B. a System Monitor trace of the problem
C. a Network Assessment
D. the system configuration
E. information on the phones and lines being used
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya examen   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.14 A customer calls and informs you that every time they call voicemail they get a busy signal. The
customer sends you the trace shown below:
0.s PRN: Monitor Started IP=192.168.42.203 IP406 DS 4.0(5) IPOffice_1
1ms PRN: LAW=U PRI=2, BRI=0, ALOG=4, ADSL=0, VCOMP=16, MDM=2, WAN=0
MODU=0 LANM-0, CkSRC=0 VMAIL=0(VER=1 TYP=1) CALLS=39(TOT=20123)
Does the trace show enough information to indicate to the customer where to begin problem resolution
and what the problem may be?
A. Yes, the voicemail is not connected to the system.
B. Yes, the Auto Attendant is using up all of the voicemail channels.
C. No, I would need to see a trace of them calling voicemail.
D. No, I would also need a Debug_View trace of the voicemail.
Answer: A

Avaya   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.15 A customer has two IP Office systems connected using Small Community Networking with centralized
voicemail. When calling from one system to another, calls intermittently get one-way audio. Which two are
necessary to begin troubleshooting this issue? (Choose two.)
A. System Status Application
B. Sniffer trace
C. IP Office Monitor trace information
D. Voicemail console trace
Answer: A,C

Avaya   certification 6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1

NO.16 A customer is receiving calls to a hunt group and the callers are reporting that they are being forced to
wait much longer than VoiceMail Pro reported to them during the queued message. What is a possible
cause for this?
A. The hunt group has a priority set to 1.
B. The hunt group has a priority set to 3.
C. There are two routes going to the hunt group. Each has different priorities set.
D. Users in the hunt group have inconsistent priority settings. The users with a priority set to 3 are always
busy.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen   6401.1 examen

NO.17 You have a customer who has loop start analog trunks. Their callers report that the line rings much
longer than the internal extensions ring. What is a possible cause of this problem?
A. The line prefix has not been correctly configured.
B. The Ring Off Maximum settings for the trunks are too high.
C. Trunks are set for Loop Start ICLID on the IP Office.
D. The trunk is supplying a long Caller ID string and the Long CLI option has not been checked in
Manager.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1 examen

NO.18 You want to install ContactStore on a PC separate from the VoiceMail Pro PC . Which three steps would
you need to complete for ContactStore to function separately? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the Voice Recording Library on the VoiceMail Pro server is shared on the customer's
network.
B. Verify that the ContactStore service has read and write permissions to the Voice Recording Library
Share.
C. Verify that the ContactStore registry settings have been updated to see the Voice Recording Library
share.
D. Verify that the VoiceMail Pro registry settings have been updated to point to the Voice Recording
Library share.
E. Verify that the ContactStore licenses have been loaded onto the PC running the ContactStore
application.
Answer: A,B,C

certification Avaya   certification 6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1   certification 6401.1

NO.19 IP Office has a feature, "Conference Meet Me" which allows users to join or start a specific numbered
conference.
Which IP Office Platform does NOT support "Conference Meet Me"?
A. IP Office 401ng
B. IP Office 500 Professional
C. IP Office 403
D. IP Office 500 Standard
Answer: D

Avaya   6401.1 examen   certification 6401.1

NO.20 A remote user wants to gain access to the network when using the RAS server.
Under which two conditions would you create an IP route.? (Choose two.)
A. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a DHCP address that is on a different
subnet
B. when the user is on the same subnet as the IP Office
C. when the remote user's dial-up connection method contains a static IP address that is on a different
subnet
D. when the IP Office's DHCP mode is set to Server or Dial In and the PC connection method is set to
obtain an IP Address Automatically
Answer: A,C

Avaya   6401.1   certification 6401.1   6401.1   6401.1   6401.1

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