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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-300
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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NO.3 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.7 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.9 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.10 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.11 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.12 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.19 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.10 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

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NO.11 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.12 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.15 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

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NO.16 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

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NO.17 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.18 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-100
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are some of the important semantics of packages? ose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 What is a relationship in UML 2.0.?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.7 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.9 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? ose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? ose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.14 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.17 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.18 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.19 What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: B,F

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NO.20 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411

Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)

Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

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NO.2 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

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NO.11 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

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NO.12 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

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NO.14 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

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NO.19 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

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