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Code d'Examen: ST0-075
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

certification Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.2 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

certification Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.3 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.4 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

certification Symantec   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.6 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.7 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

Symantec   certification ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.8 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.9 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.10 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.11 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.12 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.13 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.14 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

Symantec   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.15 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

Symantec   certification ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.16 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.17 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.18 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.19 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-075
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.2 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.3 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

Symantec   certification ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.4 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.5 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.6 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.7 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.8 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   certification ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.9 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

Symantec   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen

NO.11 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

Symantec examen   ST0-075   ST0-075   certification ST0-075

NO.13 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.14 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

Symantec examen   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075

NO.16 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

certification Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075 examen   certification ST0-075

NO.17 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

Symantec   ST0-075 examen   ST0-075   certification ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.18 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

Symantec   certification ST0-075   ST0-075   ST0-075

NO.20 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

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Code d'Examen: 250-400

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Questions et réponses: 185 Q&As

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Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-079

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-075

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-057

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas NBU PureDisk 6.5 (STS))

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NO.1 An administrator wants to install an operating system, boot-critical drrvers, and a particular piece of
software on a new machine. Which solution allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. Deployment Solution 6.9
B. Deployment Solution 70
C. Software Management Solution
D. PC Transplant
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two solutions enable an administrator to back up a workstation and then install an application on
mat same wor5tatiOn (Select two)
A. Real-Time System Manager
B. Software Management Solution
C. Recovery Solution
D. Inventory Solution
E. Wise Package Studio Pro
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 component allows an administrator to track computer
resources before an AltEfls Agent is installed?
A. Patch Management
B. Application Discovery
C. Handheld Management
D. Network Discovery
Answer: C

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NO.5 A user has an application installed in a Software Virtualization Solution (SVS) layer Alter being used
for several days. the application becomes unstable What should the user do with the SVS layer to
stabilize the application?
A. deactivate and activate me SVS layer
B. resetth SVS layer
C. delete me layer and reinstall me application
D. uninstall the application fromAdthRemove Programs
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is attempting to roil out a new security application on au systems in their environment
Mari users are uninstalling me application once they detect it on their systems. The administrator would
like to enforce the application by reinstalling It whenever it is uninstalled by end users. What delivery
method should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Application Management
Answer: C

Symantec   250-400   250-400   250-400   250-400 examen

NO.7 An administrator wants to create a transform tile for an obscure .msi and then identity machines that
require the software. Which two components should me administrator use to accomplish this task?
(Select two.)
A. Deployment Solution
B. Wise Package Studio Pro
C. Application Management
D. Real-Time System Manager
E. Inventory Solution
Answer: B,E

Symantec   250-400   250-400   certification 250-400   250-400 examen

NO.8 When creating a Managed Software Delivery policy, a compliance check is scheduled. The
compliance check is based on which component?
A. the detection rule within the Software Catalog
B. Add/Remove Programs within Windows
C. me Software Inventory Report data for the remote system
D. me file information within the Software Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator has been tasked to upgrade an application on 6.000 computers. The application must
be available in exactly 30 days The 6.000 computers will continue using the current application until then.
Which method will cause the least impact on me network on the date the application needs to be available
A. import a Software Virtualization Solution layer on the computers now and activate the layer in 30 days
B. import and activate a SoftwareWtualizatlon Solution layer on the computers and schedule it To run in
30 clays
C. distribute me application and schedule it to runWi 30 days
D. distribute the application in increments of 200 computers starting tomorrow
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-400   certification 250-400   certification 250-400

NO.10 Which type of tile must me Deployment Console user select *tiile creating a PC Transplant task to
capture a computers personality?
A. .pbt
B. .xml
C. .zip
D. .exe
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-400 examen   certification 250-400   250-400

NO.11 What is a benefit of Wise SetupCapture?
A. prevents the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
B. detects the installation ofmaiware on managed computers
C. simplifies custom application installations
D. simplifies modification of application installers
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-400   250-400   250-400   certification 250-400

NO.12 Which two products are included In Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

Symantec   250-400   250-400

NO.13 An administrator wants to upgrade a users computer from Windows XP to Windows Vista.
incorporating PC Transplant The administrator needs to limit the amount of data to be copied across the
network clung this process Which switch setting type allows me administrator to accomplish this?
A. file preservation switches
B. cloning switches
C. image file switches
D. file system switches
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-400   250-400   certification 250-400   250-400 examen

NO.14 Which type of PC Transplant file determines the application settings captured using FC Transplant?
A. POT
B. A21
C. .INI
D. XML
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-400   250-400

NO.15 Which solution is included with Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0?
A. Help Desk
B. backup Exec
C. pcAnyi4iere
D. Carbon Copy
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-400   250-400   certification 250-400

NO.16 What are two valid reasons for implementing a Managed Software Oelwery policy rather man a Quick
Delivery task'? (Select two.)
A. Software installation state enforcement Is required.
B. Software relationships are required.
C. Immediate softwaredelwery is required.
D. Distinguishing between physical and virtual software is required.
E. Online software update checking Is required
Answer: A,B

Symantec   250-400   250-400   250-400 examen   certification 250-400   250-400

NO.17 What does me Application Management Component of Inventory Solution enable an administrator to
accomplish?
A. identil'y application usage on a particular computer
B. manage applications from either a white list or a black list
C. compare changes in files and the registry between two computers
D. back up registry keys from two different computers
Answer: C

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NO.18 An end user requires delivery of a new application in a Software \'lrtualization Solutions (SVS) layer
and the administrator is unavailable. Which delivery method should the end user utilize?
A. Quick Delivery
B. Software Portal
C. Managed Delivery
D. Package Delivery
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-400   certification 250-400

NO.19 An administrator is installing two applications Into the Virtualization Solutions (SVS) layer Application 1
installs on sever1, server2, and server3, Appllcation2 Installs on server1, and server4 How many
Managed Delivery policies are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two relationships within me Software Catalog entry impact a Managed Software Delivery policy?
(Select two.)
A. supersedes
B. inherits
C. updates
D. requires
E. modifies
Answer: A,C

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