Dernières CompTIA JK0-022 MB0-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-022
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 212 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MB0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 287 Q&As

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NO.1 During the e-discovery process, a litigation hold has been placed on information stored in
several areas, including the mobile device of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the
following
A. Review logging on the device and connecting MDM server
B. Isolate the device and apply chain of custody controls
C. Encrypt information stored internally on the device
D. Hash information stored on the device
Answer: D

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NO.2 Ann, an administrator, is at a tradeshow and wishes to exchange contact information with a
vendor. Which of the following can she use? (Select TWO).
A. IR
B. DMZ
C. NFC
D. DNS
E. CSD
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Company employees are reporting wireless network connectivity issues. Which of the
following can cause interference for the company wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Microwave ovens
B. Refrigerators
C. Nearby cell phone towers
D. Vending machines
E. Bluetooth devices
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which of the following would be used to enforce a policy requiring two-factor authentication
on certain mobile devices?
A. Username and password
B. Facial recognition and PIN
C. Pattern unlock and password
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: B

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NO.5 Ann, a user, reports that her calendar is always an hour different than actual time. Which of
the following would cause this issue?
A. Calendar sync
B. Time zone
C. Connection to mail server
D. Battery level
Answer: B

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NO.6 Ann, a user, called to report an issue related to authenticating to her mobile device. After
resolving the issue, which of the following is the FINAL task that should be completed by the
mobility administrator according to troubleshooting best practices?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Verify full system functionality
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
D. Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.7 A solution which tracks and organizes the usage and cost of voice and data is referred to as:
A. TEM.
B. MaaS.
C. SaaS.
D. B2B.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When an application is assigned to a group profile:
A. it is assigned to all administrative users by default.
B. it is assigned to all users in the group.
C. it is removed from all users in the group.
D. it is assigned to all other groups.
Answer: B

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CompTIA meilleur examen PD0-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PD0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.9 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

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NO.11 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.12 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.16 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.18 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.19 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.20 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.21 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.22 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.24 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.27 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

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NO.28 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.29 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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CompTIA meilleur examen PK1-003, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PK1-003
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.2 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.4 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.7 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.12 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.14 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.15 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.17 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.21 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.22 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.23 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.25 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003

NO.27 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

CompTIA   PK1-003 examen   PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.28 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   PK1-003   PK1-003   PK1-003 examen   certification PK1-003

NO.29 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   certification PK1-003   certification PK1-003   PK1-003

NO.30 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JK0-015
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 1074 Q&As

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NO.1 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.2 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.3 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.4 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   certification JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.5 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015 examen   certification JK0-015

NO.7 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification JK0-015   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

NO.8 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015 examen

NO.9 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

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NO.10 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015

NO.11 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.14 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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NO.15 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.16 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-015 examen   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

NO.17 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-015   certification JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.18 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-015   JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.19 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification JK0-015   JK0-015

NO.20 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-015   certification JK0-015

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Code d'Examen: FC0-TS1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT for Sales )
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Broadcast storm
C. Surge
D. EMI
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.2 Which of the following is the lightest but most expensive battery used in laptops?
A. Li-Ion
B. NiCad
C. NiMH
D. Sodium-Ion
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1

NO.3 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1

NO.4 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides
the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Riser card
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
D. Audio/modem riser
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-TS1 examen   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.5 Which type of cleaning solution should be used on the exterior of computer components?
A. Alcohol
B. A glass cleaner
C. Soap and water
D. An antistatic spray
Answer: C

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NO.6 What transfer rate is supported by the 72-pin SO-DIMM?
A. 32-bit
B. 8-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 16-bit
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.7 Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiCad
B. Lithium-Ion
C. NiMH
D. Energizer
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.8 In which of the following sizes are the ExpressCard modules available?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ExpressCard/54
B. ExpressCard/34
C. ExpressCard/43
D. ExpressCard/45
Answer: B and A

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NO.9 Which of the following motherboards use 5-pin DIN keyboard connectors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ATA
B. XT
C. AT
D. ATX
Answer: B and C

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1

NO.10 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

CompTIA   certification FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.12 Which of the following organizations developed the hyper-threading technology?
A. Microsoft
B. Intel
C. Cisco
D. HP
Answer: B

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.13 Which of the following statements about High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-channel digital audio on a single
cable.
B. It has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B.
C. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
D. It is an interface primarily used to connect hard disk and CD drives in a computer.
Answer: B and A

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NO.14 Which of the following are the types of disks or drives for CDs or DVDs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Random Access Memory
B. Rewritable
C. Read Only Memory
D. Recordable
Answer: C, D, and B

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   certification FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1 examen   FC0-TS1 examen   certification FC0-TS1

NO.15 Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the
internet?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Webcam
C. Iomega Zip drive
D. Trackball
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are the various standards of SCSI?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-1
C. SCSI-0
D. SCSI-3
Answer: B, A, and D

certification CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.17 Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. SVGA
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.18 What is the maximum limit on the amount of mercury in RoHS material?
A. 10 ppm
B. 1000 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 100 ppm
Answer: D

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NO.19 Sam works as a Network Administrator for company.com. The company has forty Windows XP based
systems. Sam has been assigned a task to remove malware from the corrupted systems. Which of the
following will he remove to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Hardware
B. Spyware
C. Trojan horses
D. Adware
Answer: D, B, and C

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.20 What is the IEEE Standard for Ethernet?
A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.4
C. IEEE 802.1
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JK0-018
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Security+ E2C (2011 Edition))
Questions et réponses: 794 Q&As

JK0-018 est un test de CompTIA Certification, donc réussir JK0-018 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction CompTIA. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test CompTIA JK0-018 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test JK0-018. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?

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NO.1 Which of the following requires special handling and explicit policies for data retention and data
distribution?
A. Personally identifiable information
B. Phishing attacks
C. Zero day exploits
D. Personal electronic devices
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.2 Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Common access card
C. Strong password complexity
D. Biometric authentication
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.3 Centrally authenticating multiple systems and applications against a federated user database is an
example of:
A. smart card.
B. common access card.
C. single sign-on.
D. access control list.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-018   certification JK0-018   certification JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.4 DRPs should contain which of the following?
A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel
B. Hierarchical list of critical systems
C. Hierarchical access control lists
D. Identification of single points of failure
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-018 examen   JK0-018 examen   JK0-018

NO.5 With which of the following is RAID MOST concerned?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Baselining
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification JK0-018   JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.6 Which of the following methods of access, authentication, and authorization is the MOST secure
by default?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-018   certification JK0-018   JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.7 A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent:
A. password sharing.
B. escalation of privileges.
C. implicit deny.
D. administrative account lockout.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   certification JK0-018

NO.8 In an 802.11n network, which of the following provides the MOST secure method of both encryption
and authorization?
A. WEP with 802.1x
B. WPA Enterprise
C. WPA2-PSK
D. WPA with TKIP
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   certification JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.9 A new enterprise solution is currently being evaluated due to its potential to increase the company's
profit margins. The security administrator has been asked to review its security implications. While
evaluating the product, various vulnerability scans were performed. It was determined that the product is
not a threat but has the potential to introduce additional vulnerabilities. Which of the following assessment
types should the security administrator also take into consideration while evaluating this product?
A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Code assessment
D. Risk assessment
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.10 Which of the following facilitates computing for heavily utilized systems and networks?
A. Remote access
B. Provider cloud
C. VPN concentrator
D. Telephony
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.11 Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting
network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports?
A. VLAN separation
B. Access control
C. Loop protection
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following reduces the likelihood of a single point of failure when a server fails?
A. Clustering
B. Virtualization
C. RAID
D. Cold site
Answer: A

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NO.13 WEP is seen as an unsecure protocol based on its improper use of which of the following?
A. RC6
B. RC4
C. 3DES
D. AES
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following should be performed if a smartphone is lost to ensure no data can be retrieved
from it?
A. Device encryption
B. Remote wipe
C. Screen lock
D. GPS tracking
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018 examen

NO.15 Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended
recipient can decrypt the ciphertext?
A. Private
B. Escrow
C. Public
D. Preshared
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018 examen

NO.16 Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA?
A. Private key
B. Symmetric key
C. Recovery key
D. Public key
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.17 Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server.?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.18 Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack?
A. Memory addressing
B. Directory traversal
C. Initial vector
D. Session cookies
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host
enumeration by sweep devices?
A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. IPv4
D. ICMP
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-018   JK0-018

NO.20 Where are revoked certificates stored?
A. Recovery agent
B. Registration
C. Key escrow
D. CRL
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CLO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.2 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A

CompTIA   CLO-001   CLO-001   CLO-001

NO.13 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

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NO.16 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

CompTIA   CLO-001   CLO-001   CLO-001 examen   CLO-001

NO.18 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

CompTIA   CLO-001   certification CLO-001   certification CLO-001

NO.20 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 220-802
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 415 Q&As

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NO.1 A technician installed a second hard drive in a computer. Upon restart, a message appears
statinG. primary drive 0 not found. Press F1 to continue." Which of the following should the
technician check FIRST?
A. That NTLDR and boot.ini are not missing
B. Proper drive installation (e.g. cables/jumpers)
C. If computer can boot into safe mode
D. If the BIOS boot settings are correct
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician would like to limit computer access to certain users. Which of the following
should be
configured?
A. Advanced security
B. Boot.ini file
C. System configuration
D. Local security policy
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

CompTIA   220-802   220-802   certification 220-802

NO.4 Phishing is:
A. an infection that causes a web browser to go to a different site than the one intended from a
search result page.
B. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user mimicking a legitimate website.
C. an infection that causes a computer to behave erratically by playing music and launching
browser windows.
D. a technique used to obtain financial information from a user by compiling information from
social networks and their friends.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following file system types is used for optical media?
A. FAT32
B. FAT
C. CDFS
D. NTFS
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification 220-802   220-802   220-802   220-802 examen

NO.6 A technician gets a call from a customer stating that their computer will not boot. They are
getting
the following error invalid system disk. Which of the following should the technician check
FIRST?
A. Verify the operating system is installed correctly.
B. Verify that all removable drives are empty.
C. Verify Boot.ini is on the hard drive.
D. Verify the computer will boot into safe mode.
Answer: B

CompTIA   220-802   220-802   certification 220-802   220-802

NO.7 A user has too many applications starting when they log into windows. From the command
line,
which of the following tools is the FASTEST option to prevent these applications from running on
startup?
A. MSCONFIG
B. SERVICES.MSC
C. REGEDIT
D. MSINFO32
Answer: A

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NO.8 When scheduling a backup for preventative maintenance, which of the following would
ensure all
data was captured?
A. Differential
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Daily
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   220-802   certification 220-802

NO.9 From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application?
A. Local Security Policy
B. MSCONFIG
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification 220-802   220-802

NO.10 A user has not received any new emails on their smartphone in the last two days. The user is
able
to access the Internet without any problems. Which of the following should the user do FIRST?
A. Restart the smartphone
B. Reconfigure the smartphone email account
C. Resynchronize the smart phone
D. Update the operating system
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HT0-102
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed?
A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83
Answer: C

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NO.2 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location?
A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following authorities establish the National Electrical Code (NEC) as legal
regulations?
A. Local fire marshal
B. Local governments
C. Building contractors
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following does NOT need to be documented for a control system?
A. System diagram
B. Equipment list
C. Configuration of equipment
D. Equipment specifications
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   HT0-102   certification HT0-102   HT0-102

NO.6 Which of the following devices will prevent the loss of functionality during a sudden alternating
current (AC) power outage?
A. Dedicated circuit
B. Surge protector
C. Transfer switch
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification HT0-102   HT0-102 examen

NO.7 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102 examen   HT0-102 examen

NO.8 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102

NO.9 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following terms describes a point or group of points in an alarm system?
A. Zone
B. Area
C. Perimeter
D. Demarcation
Answer: A

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NO.11 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification HT0-102   certification HT0-102   HT0-102

NO.12 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102   HT0-102   HT0-102   HT0-102

NO.14 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102

NO.15 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102 examen   HT0-102

NO.16 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.17 The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria?
A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-102 examen   HT0-102   HT0-102 examen

NO.18 Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables?
A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-102   HT0-102   HT0-102   HT0-102

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