pass4test est le site de préparation aux examens de certification IT plus efficace: 六月 2013

2013年6月29日星期六

IBM meilleur examen 000-614, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-614

Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 10.1 Advanced DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows)

Questions et réponses: 110 Q&As

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NO.1 If the following commands complete successfully for a single partition database: CREATE
DATABASE mydb; CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp; Which statement is true?
A. Self tuning is enabled for the MYBP buffer pool.
B. The initial size for the MYBP buffer pool is zero pages.
C. The database has to be restarted before the MYBP buffer pool will become active.
D. The page size for the MYBP buffer pool can be changed using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL
statement.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following query is executed frequently against the SALES table: SELECT sales_id,
sales_date, sales_person FROM sales; If data in the SALES_ID column is unique, which
statement will create an index for optimal query performance and ensure uniqueness of the
SALES_ID column?
A. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
C. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement about SMS table spaces is correct?
A. The system catalog cannot be stored in an SMS table space.
B. Tables, large objects (LOBs), and indexes can each reside in separate SMS table spaces.
C. SMS table spaces are recommended when you have small tables that are not likely to grow
quickly.
D. Extents are more likely to be contiguous with SMS table spaces than they are with DMS table
spaces.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A DB2 9 database named MYDB that does not use automatic storage was migrated to DB2
10.1.
When will a default storage group be defined for this database?
A. The first time the database is accessed after the migration.
B. The first time the CREATE STOGROUP statement is executed.
C. When the ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT statement is used to convert the database to
an automatic storage database.
D. When the ALTER TABLESPACE statement is used to convert the table space that holds the
system catalog for the database to automatic storage.
Answer: B

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NO.5 On which two operating systems can DB2 pureScale run? (Choose two.)
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Solaris
E. Windows
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 If the following statements are executed: CREATE STOGROUP sg_hot ON '/path1', '/path2',
'/path3'; CREATE STOGROUP sg_med ON '/path4', '/path5', '/path6'; CREATE TABLESPACE
tbsp1 USING STOGROUP sg_hot; What is the recommended way to move table space TBSP1
from storage group SG_HOT to storage group SG_MED?
A. Issue an ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the 'USING sg_med' option.
B. Issue an ALTER STOGROUP statement with the 'MOVE tbsp1 TO sg_med' option.
C. Perform a table space RESTORE operation with the 'USING STOGROUP sg_hot' option.
D. Use the ADMIN_MOVE_TABLESPACE procedure to move table space TBSP1 to SG_HOT.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: LOT-929

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration Update)

Questions et réponses: 27 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following is true when using OpenID as an external identity provider?
A. Administrators are not allowed to change the list of external identity providers that users
canaccess.
B. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames property in the Resource
Environment Providers section in the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames in the custom properties for thecom.ibm.portal.auth.OpenIDTAI trust
association interceptor.
D. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators need to edit the
openid.servicenames property in the wkplc.propertiesfile and then run the
enable-identityprovidertai
task.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Identify the false statement pertaining to log files generated during installation, maintenance,
and
operation of IBM WebSphere Portal:
A. ConfigTrace.log - Contains information that is generated each time a ConfigEngine task is
executed.This file is located inwp_profile_root/ConfigEngine/log directory.
B. trace.log - Used for Diagnostic Trace to log information related to the Collaborative Services.
This file is located inwp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal directory.
C. siteanalyzer.log - contains the the portal configuration service SiteAnalyzerLogService
information that determines the type of site analysis datathat the portal logs at run time. This file is
located in wp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal/sa directory.
D. SystemOut.log - Contains runtime information.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order to view site analytics overlay reports, Harold needs at least the following access:
A. ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and ADMINISTRATOR role
for the resource he wants to view.
B. MANAGER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and MANAGER role for the resource
he wants to view
C. SECURITY ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and SECURITY
ADMINISTRATOR role for the resource he wants toview.
D. USER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and USER role for the resource he wants
to view.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P10

Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)

Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

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NO.1 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.2 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.4 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.8 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.13 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.14 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.17 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.22 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.23 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.24 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.25 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.27 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.28 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.29 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.30 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: HP (HP LoadRunner Software)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to
drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current
number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C. the time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D. the time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other
measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

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NO.6 In the Analysis tool, what allows you to modify the scale of the x-axis?
A. think time
B. granularity
C. event type
D. transaction hierarchical path
Answer: B

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NO.7 You configure a scenario to start with a delay of <05:00:00> (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from
work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A. You failed to save the scenario.
B. You failed to save the schedule.
C. You failed to connect to the load generators.
D. You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Answer: D

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NO.8 After the scenario execution, which LoadRunner component is responsible for collecting and
organizing the performance data?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. load generator
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination
machines?
A. MS IIS
B. Windows Resource
C. Network Delay Time
D. Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
Answer: B

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NO.11 When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the lr_start_transaction function be
placed?
A. at the end of the action section
B. at the beginning of the action section
C. immediately after the rendezvous function
D. immediately before the rendezvous function
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which scenario execution run allows you to verify the system performs as expected under load?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: B

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NO.13 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the
Vusers.
Start auto log message stack - Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the image shown in the exhibit represent?
A. Thumbnail
B. Extended Log
C. Content Check
D. Snapshot on Error
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test
scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C

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NO.17 When scheduling by scenario, to which group(s) does the defined schedule apply?
A. all groups in the scenario
B. only the first group in the scenario
C. only the selected group in the scenario
D. only the selected group in the scenario scheduler
Answer:A

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NO.18 During analysis of a scenario, you realize that the throughput becomes flat as Vusers continue to
increase. What is the likely cause?
A. a bandwidth problem
B. a database server problem
C. a web server connection problem
D. an application server connection problem
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which Analysis graph shows the number of transactions against transaction response times?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: D

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NO.20 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J12

Nom d'Examen: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)

Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.2 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.3 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.9 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.11 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.15 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.20 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.22 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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NO.23 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.26 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.29 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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HP0-628 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-628

Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HSx80 Compaq Storage Solutions for UNIX)

Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 How many device-side single-ended SCSI buses does the HSG80 controller support?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. None, all buses are differential.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Exhibit:
What number matches the cache module used by the top HSG80 controller?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.3 What does the green LED in the shape of a canister on a universal drive indicate?
A. drive is idle
B. drive activity
C. drive has failed
D. drive is operational
Answer: D

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NO.4 Under normal operating conditions, the reset button on the Operator Control Panel
(OCP) of an HSG80 controller_______ .
A. remains off
B. remains on
C. turns amber
D. blinks once per second
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where is the first place that data are stored after arriving in the HSG80 controller?
A. disk
B. cache
C. NVRAM
D. static memory
Answer: B

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NO.6 Exhibit:
If the first four LEDs in the exhibit are on solid, what is the condition of the
controller?
A. Controller is running.
B. Controller has a fault.
C. Controller is shut down.
D. Ports 1, 2, 3 have misconfigured drives.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of fan modules supported in the M2200 shelf?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many 1.0 inch disk drives are supported in the StorageWorks Model 4350
device enclosure?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 14
D. 50
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of supported cache modules in an MA8000 storage
subsystem?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the maximum number of StorageWorks Model 4354 device enclosures
supported by the HSG80?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-207

Nom d'Examen: HP (Procurve Adaptive EDGE Fundamentals)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 You configured Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol on four ProCurve Switch 5348xl switches at a
customer site. During the configuration, you forgot to configure the switches so that
switch-to-switch links are not defined as edge ports. Which statement describes the consequence
of your oversight?
A.The switches in the spanning tree will elect multiple Root bridges.
B.The switches will reject the spanning tree configuration and block all ports until the configuration is
corrected.
C.The switches will be unable to elect a Root bridge and will not be able to forward traffic until the
configuration is corrected.
D.The switches will require more time to elect the Root bridge and resolve the topology, but the spanning
tree will otherwise function normally.
Correct:D

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NO.2 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must change context from the manager
level to the global configuration level. Which command do you use?
A.exit
B.write
C.global
D.enable
E.configure
Correct:E

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NO.3 How is traffic prioritization accomplished with IEEE 802.1p?
A.802.1Q-compliant devices enforce priorities based on VLAN ID.
B.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 8 values in a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag.
C.802.1Q-compliant devices set one of 64 values in a 6-bit field in the IP datagram header.
D.802.1Q-compliant devices dedicate a portion of available bandwidth to each prioritized conversation.
Correct:B

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NO.4 You are implementing a fully connected HP Switch Mesh at a customer site. Which statement
describes a valid design guideline for HP Switch Meshing?
A.A switch may be connected to no more than four mesh domains.
B.Up to five Switch 5400zl Series switches can be included in a full mesh.
C.All links in a full mesh must operate at the same speed and use the same media type.
D.When a switch is configured for HP Switch Meshing protocol, all of the ports on that switch must
participate in the mesh.
Correct:B

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NO.5 On switches that support the Switch Setup screen interface, which parameters can be
configured on the Switch Setup screen? Select TWO.
A.STP bridge priority
B.IP address of the TACACS+ server
C.system name and contact information
D.IP address and subnet mask for each VLAN
E.IP address and subnet mask for the default VLAN
Correct:C E

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NO.6 How do ProCurve switches, configured with link aggregation (also known as port trunking),
handle broadcast traffic?
A.Broadcast traffic is flooded through all of the ports in the trunk.
B.The switch sends a query and receives permission from potential receivers before flooding.
C.Broadcast traffic is handled in exactly the same way it would be without port trunking configured.
D.Broadcast traffic is flooded through non-trunked ports, but forwarded only through one of the ports in
the trunk.
Correct:D

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NO.7 You are configuring a ProCurve Layer 2 switch to obtain time information from an SNTP server
located on a different IP network than the switch. Which configuration steps are necessary on the
switch to enable this functionality?
A.The switch cannot be configured to obtain time information from a server on a different IP network.
B.Define a default gateway for the switch, enable SNTP, use the sntp server command to enter the IP
address of the server.
C.Assign a port on the switch to a VLAN that includes the SNTP server, enable SNTP, configure the
switch for SNTP unicast mode.
D.Configure an IP address on the same IP network as the SNTP server, enable TimeP, configure the
switch for SNTP broadcast mode.
Correct:B

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NO.8 You must update the software on a customer's ProCurve Switch 5412zl. Which statement
correctly describes the process for this operation? Select TWO.
A.Use TFTP for direct serial transfer of the software.
B.Use FTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
C.Use TFTP for in-band transfer of the software through an IP network.
D.Transfer the software from your workstation using a direct serial transfer.
E.Instruct the switch to search for any available TFTP server without knowing its IP address.
Correct:C D

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NO.9 While using the CLI to configure a ProCurve switch, you must move from the global
configuration level to the port context configuration level for port a1. Which command do you use?
A.port a1
B.ethernet a1
C.interface a1
D.configure a1
Correct:C

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NO.10 What are the primary solution categories of the Adaptive EDGE Architecture? Select THREE.
A.mobility
B.security
C.reliability
D.availability
E.upgradeability
F.convergence
G.cost-effectiveness
Correct:A B F

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NO.11 What are the key principles of the Adaptive EDGE architecture? Select TWO.
A.Control to the Edge
B.Control to the Desktop
C.Command from the Center
D.Management from Anywhere
E.Security throughout the Network
Correct:A C

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NO.12 A customer is planning a Power over Ethernet deployment for a large call center that will use
VoIP telephones. While planning the wiring closets for the deployment, the customer suggests
using the uplink ports of a ProCurve Switch 2650-PWR to provide power to a ProCurve Switch
2600-8-PWR. Which statement describes a correct response to this suggestion?
A.It is only possible if the second switch is a ProCurve Switch 2626-PWR.
B.It is not possible because the 2600-8-PWR cannot act as a Powered Device.
C.It is only possible if the customer adds a ProCurve 600 EPS/RPS to the first switch.
D.It is not recommended because the second switch will not have adequate power redundancy.
Correct:B

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NO.13 You are about to update the software on a ProCurve switch. Which command do you use to view
a list of all software versions stored on the switch?
A.show run
B.show flash
C.show startup
D.show version
Correct:B

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NO.14 At a customer site, you have configured four ProCurve switches for HP Switch Meshing and
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol. How will the mesh appear to non-mesh switches in the same
spanning tree domain?
A.as a single device
B.as a set of devices without redundant links
C.as devices that cannot participate in the spanning tree
D.as a set of devices with spanning tree enabled to block redundant links
Correct:A

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NO.15 You have been asked to configure IGMP on a ProCurve Switch 6200yl at a customer site. What
are the steps for enabling IGMP on the switch?
A.Enter the manager level, then issue the ip igmp command.
B.Enter the global configuration context, then issue the ip igmp command.
C.Enter the VLAN context for each VLAN that will support IGMP, then issue the ip igmp command.
D.Enter the interface configuration context for each port configured with a VLAN, then issue the ip igmp
command.
Correct:C

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NO.16 You must remotely manage a customer's switch using Telnet. Which configuration/monitoring
interfaces are available? Select TWO.
A.web interface
B.menu interface
C.ProCurve Manager
D.boot monitor interface
E.command line interface
Correct:B E

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NO.17 While examining the spanning tree configuration on a ProCurve switch, you notice that one of
the ports is in the Blocking state. Which statement describes how this port will function in this
state?
A.The port is completely blocked for all purposes.
B.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward telnet traffic.
C.The switch will not forward user traffic through that port, but will forward BPDUs through that port.
D.The switch forwards user traffic through that port, but does not receive user traffic through that port.
Correct:C

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NO.18 You are about to configure HP Switch Meshing on four ProCurve switches at a customer site.
All of the ports that will be included in the mesh are configured for membership in customer
VLANs. How will the mesh configuration affect the VLAN configuration?
A.The mesh ports will automatically become a tagged member of all configured VLANs.
B.The mesh ports will not be a member of any VLANs until you manually configure its VLAN assignments.
C.The mesh ports will not be 802.1Q-compliant and will only be able to retain membership in a single
untagged VLAN.
D.The mesh ports will automatically become a member of the default VLAN and must be configured for
other VLAN membership.
Correct:A

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NO.19 You are assigned to configure ProCurve switches at a customer site for in-band management.
Which are in-band management methods? Select TWO.
A.Telnet
B.SNMP
C.XMODEM
D.serial console
E.menu interface
Correct:A B

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NO.20 You are installing a ProCurve switch at a customer site and must enable remote management
for network administrators. Which configuration parameter is necessary to ensure that
administrators can manage the switch even if they are on different IP networks?
A.default VLAN
B.default gateway
C.default password
D.default management profile
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-841

Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 187 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three operating systems are supported in an HP heterogeneous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.HP NSK
B.IBM AIX
C.IBM OS400
D.Tru64 UNIX
E.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
Correct:B D E

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NO.2 What is the internal M-series switch latency of a HP Fibre Channel switch?
A.between 1us and 2us maximum
B.3us
C.5us
D.33us
E.650us
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which statement applies to trunking on B-Series switches?
A.Oversubsciption is impossible with trunking.
B.If one ISL of a trunk fails, the whole trunk fails.
C.Trunking increases the availability because an I/O is not interrupted, even if the master ISL of a trunk
fails.
D.Trunking is more effecient than individual ISLs because it is less probable that congestion will be
experienced.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which three infrastructure components are supported from multiple vendors in an HP Open
heterogenous SAN? (Choose three.)
A.hubs
B.switches
C.ATM gateways
D.storage systems
E.operating systems
Correct:B D E

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NO.5 The sum of the wait time (in queues) and the service time is _____.
A.data rate
B.request rate
C.response time
D.utilization time
Correct:C

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NO.6 What are HP SAN management strategies? (Choose two.)
A.automated policy based management
B.policy based backup using the storage management appliance
C.automatic performance optimization using sophisticated high performance management agents
D.storage virtualization using in-band management functionality of the storage management appliance
E.simplified, centralized storage management using standardized web based GUIs residing on a storage
management appliance
Correct:A E

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NO.7 In a single fabric, when multiple paths exist between a host and its storage, which statement is
true?
A.The result could be an unstable fabric.
B.Load sharing is automatically set to static.
C.The FSPF protocol determines best route.
D.The path used is determined by port priority.
Correct:C

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NO.8 A company is running an application that is READ intensive. They are more concerned with
effective READ performance than WRITE performance. They have a limited number of disks so
they need to minimize RAID overhead. What type of RAID should they use?
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 1+0
D.RAID 5
Correct:D

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NO.9 What is the correct statement about zoning in an interoperable fabric?
A.WWPN zoning is the only allowed method.
B.A mixture of domain ID, port number and WWPN zoning is allowed.
C.Domain ID and port number zoning are the only allowed methods.
D.Zoning is not allowed. The only way to segment a fabric is using the VSAN technology of C-Series
switches.
Correct:A

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NO.10 What can you do to minimize communication delays between a host and its storage subsystem?
A.cross couple multiple ISLs
B.ensure there is at least one switch hop
C.connect the two devices to the same switch
D.configure a maximum of four active host ports per ISL
Correct:C

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NO.11 In the SAN configuration, assume a goal of redundancy for everything. How many Storage
Management Appliances are needed?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.6
Correct:B

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NO.12 Which HP SAN Management tool is a highly scalable, Java-based application that manages
multiple B-Series switches and fabrics in real-time?
A.HP StorageWorks Fabric Manager
B.Management Appliance Software v2.1
C.HP OpenView Storage Node Manager
D.HP StorageWorks High Availability Fabric Manager (HAFM)
E.HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance III and HP OpenView Storage Management Appliance
software v2.1
Correct:A

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NO.13 What is the maximum distance per cable segment using 9/125 micron single-mode cable and
long wavelength 2 Gb SFPs?
A.1 km
B.5 km
C.10 km
D.35 km
E.100 km
Correct:C

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NO.14 What are the three types of fabric zoning on B-series switches? (Choose three.)
A.static zoning
B.software zoning
C.hardware zoning
D.mixmode zoning
E.QuickLoop zoning
Correct:B C D

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NO.15 What characteristic has the greatest impact on disk performance?
A.bus type
B.drive latency
C.I/O transfer size
D.upgrade from a 1Gb/s HBA to a 2Gb/s HBA
Correct:B

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NO.16 In Web Tools, which is a valid switch state?
A.down
B.marginal
C.segmented
D.reconfiguring
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which software module of HP OpenView Storage Area Manager (SAM) can you use to control
the access of a managed host to a managed storage device?
A.Storage Builder
B.Storage Allocater
C.Storage Accountant
D.Storage Node Manager
Correct:B

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NO.18 What is throughput?
A.the number of requests processed per second
B.the number of I/O requests satisfied per unit of time
C.the amount of time a device needs to process a request
D.the time a device takes to process a request from issuance to completion
Correct:B

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NO.19 What is a Fibre Channel fabric?
A.one or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
B.two or more switches connected together, sharing the same name and routing table
C.one or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
D.two or more switches connected together, each having its own independent name and routing table
Correct:A

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NO.20 Three LUNs, sda, sdb and sdc, are connected to a Linux server. You shutdown the server and
physically remove sdb. What happens after the server reboots?
A.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is not listed in the device scan.
B.The LUN sda is accessible, LUN sdc is now sdb and accessible using this name.
C.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is listed as offline in the device scan.
D.The LUNs sda and sdc are accessible, LUN sdb is renamed into sdvb simulating a virtual device.
Correct:B

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