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Code d'Examen: 70-622
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Pro:Microsoft Desktop Support - Enterprise.)
Questions et réponses: 215 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company monitors user logon times on a
daily basis.
You need to generate a report when users log on after 9 A.M. and have it send to your e-mail account.
What should you do?
A. Create a new task, add the At Log On trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the VBS script if the time is after 9 A.M.
B. Create a new task, add the At Startup trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the VBS script if the time is after 9 A.M.
C. Create a new task, add the At Startup trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the Task Scheduler if the time is after 9 A.M.
D. Create a new task, add the At Log On trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the Task Scheduler if the time is after 9 A.M.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
You need to recommend a solution to enable forwarding of events. The events must be encrypted when
they are forwarded. Which three configurations should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Open port 443 on the Windows firewall.
B. Ensure that all users have a user certificate.
C. Ensure that all computers have a computer certificate.
D. Configure the client computers by using winrm.exe
E. Select the Certficate Propagation service startup type to automatic.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
Users send security reports to the main office over the Internet using Windows Mail.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the security reports are encrypted when they are
transmitted over the Internet.
What should you recommend?
A. Use S/MIME.
B. Use POP3 with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
C. Use Encrypted File System (EFS).
D. Use SMTP.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
The computers run Performance Monitor daily. Performance logging data is saved to a file named
perfmon.log.
You need to view the performance data in an SQL database. What should you do?
A. Use Sort.exe to output a .sql file.
B. Use Fc.exe to perform a binary comparison.
C. Use the type command to pipe the file to a .sql file.
D. Run Relog.exe to export the file to a new output file format.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The company's network consists of 10
Windows Vista computers and a server installed with Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). You
must centralize Windows Updates from Microsoft on all the computers.
You need to configure all the computers to retrieve updates from the WSUS server. What should you do?
A. Ensure the intranet statistics server and intranet Microsoft Update servers are hosted on different
servers
B. Ensure the intranet statistics server and intranet Microsoft Updates services are configured on the
Windows Vista computers.
C. Ensure that the Allow non-administrator to receive update notification Group Policy is enabled on all
the computers.
D. Ensure that all computers are in the same workgroup as the WSUS server.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista. A user's computer automatically downloads and installs a critical patch for the vulnerability in a
system DLL file. The user reports that she receives an error emssage when she attempts to start
Windows.
You need to restore the user's computer to a bootable state without installing the earlier upate ifles. You
must achieve this goal by using the minimum ammount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Access the recovery console and run fixmbr c:.
B. Start the computer in safe mode and restore the original system DLL file.
C. Perform a system restore from the Windows Vista installation DVD and restore to an earlier date.
D. Access the recovery console from the Windows Vista installation DVD and extract only the original
system DLL file. Then, overwrite te faulty file.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The Computers in your company run Windows
XP. You upgrade the comptuers to Windows Vista. You download new updates by using Windows Update
Agent. You discover that the update files are corrupted.
You need to force Windows Update Agent to download the entire update again.
What should you do?
A. Run the wuauclt.exe /detectnow command.
B. Run the wuauclt.exe /resetauthorization /detectnow command.
C. Stop the Windows Updates server and rename the C:\Program Files\WindowsUpdate folder. Then,
restart the Windows Update Service.
D. Stop the Windows Update service and rename the %systemroot%\SoftwareDistribution folder. Then,
restart the Windows Update service.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company comuters run Windows Vista.
You need to verify the updates that have been installed on your Windows Vista computer.
Which two actions should you perform.? (Each correct answer present a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Click on View update history in the Windows Update applet.
B. Analyze the Security event log.
C. Click Check for updates in Windows Update applet.
D. Open the ReportingEvents.log file under %systemroot%\SoftwareDistribution to check whether the
update is applied.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows XP. The computers on the corporate network run Windows Vista. The
computers are configured to obtain IP addreses automically. A user reports that he cannot access
resources on the corporate network. You discover that the IP address of the users computer is
169.254.17.9 with a 16-bit subnet mask. You restart the computer, but the user still cannot access
resources on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that the user can access resources on the corporate network. What should you do?
A. Run the ipconfig / flushdns command with elevated privileges.
B. Run the net start "Workstation" command with elevated privileges
C. Run the net start "DHCP Client" command with elevated privileges.
D. Run the ipconfig / release command with elevated privileges and run the ipconfig / renew command.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are a desktop support technician for your company.
You set up event forwarding between a source computer and a collecting computer. The collecting
computer has a standard user set to run the subscription. The collecting computer displays the
subscription status as Trying. You verify that there is no error on the source computer and that the firewall
is conifgured correctly. You need to view the subscription run time status.
A. Use the Wecutil.exe command line utility.
B. Analyze the Security event log.
C. Analyze the dtcinstall.log file.
D. Use the Resultant Set of Policy console.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
You need to prevent users from installing devices on their computers. Your solution must achieve this goal
without modifying administrator permissions.
Which two policy settings in group policy object editor should you enable? (Each correct answers
presents part of the resolution. Choose two.)
A. Prevent installation of removable devices.
B. Allow administrators to override device installation policy.
C. Prevent installation of devices that match these device IDs.
D. Allow installation of devices that match any of these device IDs.
E. Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings.
Answer: BE

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NO.12 You are a desktop support technician for your company. All client computers at the company run
Windows Vista. The company uses Windows Server 2003 virtual private network (VPN) servers. You
need to recommend a solution to simplify the setup of VPN connections on client computers.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an .ins file and distribute it to all users.
B. Use the Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) to build a service profile.
C. Configure Group Policy and the Network Connections options under Computer Configuration.
D. Configure Group Policy and the Network Connections options under User Configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are a desktop support technician for your company.
You need to disable the User Account Control (UAC) feature for local administrators by using the Group
Policy Object Editor. Your solution must not disable UAC for standard users.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set Disabled for the User Account Control. Run all administrators in Admin Approval Mode option.
B. Set Disabled for the User Account Control: Detect application installations and prompt for elevation
option.
C. Set Disabled for the User Account Control: Switch the secure desktoip when prompting for elevation
option.
D. Set Enabled for the User account Control: Admin Approval Mode for the Built-in Administrator account
option.
E. Set Elevate without prompting for the User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for
administrators in Admin Apprval Mode option.
Answer: AE

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NO.14 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run
Windows Vista. The computers have the All Comm and Secure Comm policies defined. You assign the All
Comm policy to the computers. You need to ensure that the computers encrypt all outgoing traffic.
What should you do?
A. Delete the All Comm policy.
B. Assign the Secure Comm policy.
C. Configure the All Comm policy to use a mirrored filter.
D. Set the soruce address of the existing filter to My IP Address.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
A user reports that Disk Defragmenter is running on his computer when he arrives at the office. You
discover that Disk Defragmenter is set to turn at the same time that a software application maintenance
program is set to run.
You need to ensure that Disk Defragmenter runs at 3 A.M. on the user's computer. You must achieve this
goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. In Task Scheduler, locate the Disk Defragment task and set it to 3 A.M.
B. In Local Group Policy, set the Disk Defragmenter program to run at 3 A.M.
C. Open Task Scheduler and crate a new task to run the Disk Defragmenter program at 3 A.M.
D. Configure a Group Policy Object across the domain and set the Disk Defragmenter program to run at 3
A.M.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers on the corporate network run
Windows XP and Windows Vista in a single domain. The computers that run Windows XP do not appear
on the Network Map diagram. You need to ensure that all the computers appear on the Network Map
diagram. What should you do?
A. Install the UPnP networking serivce on the computers that run Windows XP.
B. Download the Link-Layer Topology Discover (LLTD) Responder component from the Microsoft Website
and install the component on the domain server.
C. Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows XP.
D. Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows Vista.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company has a main office and three
branch offices. A user travels to all the offices with a portable computer that runs Windows Vista.
You need to ensure that the user can access network printers at any office without reconfiguring her
computer.
What should you do?
A. Restart the Printer Spooler service
B. Create a Deploy Printer connection in the User Configuration policy.
C. Create a Deploy Printer connection in the Computer Configuration Policy
D. Ensure that the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) service is started.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your network contains an Active Directory
domain. All Windows Vista computers are joined to the domain. You need to ensure that the settings that
are configured are by using the Local Computer Policy are not applied to the Windows Vista computers.
What should you do?
A. Delete gpmc.msc.
B. Delete gpedit.msc
C. Disable registry policy processing.
D. Turn of Local Group Policy
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The corporate network has a domain controller
that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003 and computers that run Microsoft Windows XP Professional
and Windows Vista Business. You set up group policies on the domain controller.
When you logon to the corporate network, only the comptuers that run Windows Vista Business are able
to retrieve the updated policies.
You need to process the group policy for all the computers on the corporate network. Which Internet
Control Message Protocol (ICMP) setting should you enable?
A. Allow incoming echo request
B. Allow incoming mask request
C. Allow outgoing source quench
D. Allow outgoing parameter problem
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company has a main office and a branch
office. You connect a new computer that runs Windows Vista to the main office network. You need to
ensure that the new computer can discover all the computers on the main office network. You also need
to ensure that all computers on the main office and branch office networks can discover the new
computer.
What should you do?
A. Set the Location type of the network to Public
B. Set the Location type of the network to Private.
C. Configure Windows Firewall to permit traffic on port 3389.
D. Create and assign a new IPSec policy that activates the Default response rule.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: MB6-817
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (AX 2009 Trade and Logistics)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a new order processor in the Contoso company. You must enter a new sales order into
the system. However, you are not sure that all the data is correct. Therefore, you would like a more
experienced Order Processor to check it before confirming the order. How can you handle this in
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Create a sales order of the type Journal.
B.Create a sales order of the type Subscription.
C.Create a Blanket order.
D.Create a sales quotation.
Correct:A

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NO.2 You are an order processor in the Contoso company. You want to validate an order entry setup
for your best customers. It must be valid for all sites on every workday, at 4 p.m. How can you
achieve this?
A.Select the All sites and All order group check box in the Activate order entry deadline combinations form.
B.Create a new entry order deadline group and approve it.
C.Activate assign an order entry deadline group to a customer.
D.Create a group, activate the combination, and set up the combination with the weekdays and time.
Correct:D

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NO.3 A serialized item belongs to an inventory model group that has the Picking requirement
parameter selected. The Blank issue check box is selected in the item dimensiongroup. How does
this influence the picking process? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Serial numbers must be specified before a packing slip update, as the settings in the inventory model
group overrule the settings in the dimension group.
B.The sales order cannot be invoice updated without specifying serial numbers.
C.Order lines can be picked and invoiced without specifying serial numbers for the items.
D.Picking list registration must be performed.
Correct:C D

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NO.4 If the counted quantity of items is more or less than the posted quantity, what happens when
you post the Counting journal?
A.Counting transactions are created and posted for each item counted.
B.Profit and loss transactions are created but not posted.
C.The quantity difference report is generated.
D.The difference in quantity should be manually posted.
Correct:A

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NO.5 You are the Quality assurance manager in the Contoso company. You receive customer
complaints about the screen image quality of the item 1000 LCD Television. How do you initiate
the test task to test the screen image for this item in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Create a Quarantine order from a sales order.
B.Click Functions > Test from a sales order.
C.Create and set up a new problem type.
D.Create a manual quality order.
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is the issue status of an inventory transaction, after you ship a transfer order?
A.Shipped
B.Delivered
C.Received
D.Sold
Correct:D

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NO.7 You are the Materials manager in the Contoso company. You set up item 1007 CRT Television
Model 01. The sales warehouse for this item is warehouse 21. How can you prevent the sales
warehouse from being changed on the sales order line, after the line is created?
A.Disable the warehouse change parameter on the sales order header.
B.In the Default order settings form, specify that the sales warehouse selected for the item is mandatory.
C.Select the Primary stocking check box in the item dimension group.
D.Specify warehouse 21 and select the Mandatory check box in the Create sales order dialog box.
Correct:B

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NO.8 How can you specify item prices in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Automatically, if setup in the inventory parameters.
B.Manually, on the Setup tab of the Customer/Vendor form.
C.Manually, on the Price/Discount tab of the Items form.
D.By using costing versions.
Correct:C D

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NO.9 If you want a task to be completed within a specific period of time, how can you set this up in a
purchase requisition workflow configuration?
A.Specify the From and To dates in a workflow configuration.
B.Select the Set a time limit for the task check box and specify a time limit.
C.Activate the automatic actions in Accounts payable parameters.
D.Create a separate workflow and define alert rules for the task.
Correct:B

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NO.10 The item 9004 is a high-risk item. The Contoso company must be able to trace each of these
items back to purchase and forward to sales if it becomes necessary to recall the items. Which of
the following options do you choose to ensure this full traceability?
A.Set up a unique inventory model group for the item.
B.Manually allocate unique serial numbers to the items on issue.
C.Assign a serial number group to the item that allocates unique serial numbers to each item on receipt.
D.Set up the item inventory model group to automatically assign unique Lot IDs to each item.
Correct:C

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NO.11 Which of the following is not an item dimension in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Color
B.Batch number
C.Size
D.Configuration
Correct:B

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NO.12 If warehouse is specified as the primary stocking dimension, and warehouse is specified on a
sales order line, how does this influence automatic reservation?
A.A reservation is made against the dimension with the lowest alphanumeric ID.
B.Items are reserved only at the warehouse specified.
C.Items are reserved according to the LIFO principle.
D.Items are reserved according to the FIFO principle.
Correct:B

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NO.13 You are a warehouse employee. How can you save your settings for the Arrival overview form to
your computer?
A.Specify a setup name on the Setup tab of the Arrival overview form and select to save the current
settings.
B.Specify a setup name on the Setup tab of the Inventory parameters form and select to save the current
settings.
C.The system does not allow you to save settings for the Arrival overview form on your local machine.
D.Create new or update your current settings, save them, and select your computer in the Apply to field.
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which of the following is not a non-conformance type in the Quality management module of
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Customer
B.Service request
C.Item
D.Production
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which of the following must be set up before creating transfer orders in Microsoft Dynamics
AX 2009? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.The transport time must be created and set up.
B.The transit warehouse must be created.
C.The To warehouse must have a transit warehouse attached.
D.The From warehouse must have a transit warehouse attached.
Correct:B D

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NO.16 What is the Item arrival functionality used for in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.For estimating and managing item arrival alerts
B.For viewing expected receipts and to start the arrival processing
C.For registering items that are delivered to the transfer warehouse
D.For checking that ordered items physically arrived to the quarantine warehouse
Correct:B

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NO.17 How can you set up a quality order to be generated automatically after you post a purchase
order picking list for an item?
A.Select the Create quality order automatically check box in Inventory management parameters.
B.Define rules in the Quality associations form.
C.When setting up posting profiles, set the Quality order field to Automatic.
D.When posting the picking list, select the Create quality order check box.
Correct:B

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NO.18 Which of the following is not a storage dimension in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2009?
A.Site
B.Batch
C.Pallet ID
D.Size
Correct:D

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NO.19 How can you reserve items that are not on hand, but for which purchase orders are created?
A.Automatic reservation should be used.
B.Ordered but not yet received items are always available for reservations.
C.Select the Allow negative quantity check box for the item.
D.Select the Reserve ordered items check box in Inventory parameters.
Correct:D

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NO.20 The item Plasma Television Model 01 is set up with the following specifications: In the batch
number group assigned to the item, the allocation method is set up as follows: The Only for
inventory transactions check box is selected, the On physical update check box is selected, and
10 is specified in the Per qty. field.The items dimension group has batch number activation. When
a purchase order for 200 Plasma Television Model 01 is posted, when are the batch numbers
allocated to the items,and how many inventory transactions are made?
A.The batch numbers are allocated on receipt list update and 20 transactions are made.
B.The batch numbers are allocated on receipt list update and 200 transactions are made.
C.The batch numbers are allocated on packing slip update and 20 transactions are made.
D.The batch numbers are allocated on packing slip update and 200 transactions are made.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-030
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS))
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a key prerequisite for enabling the end-user Email Spam Quarantine feature?
A. Selecting the 'Delete messages sent to unresolved email addresses' option
B. Importing a list of allowed users on the Quarantine Setup page
C. Defining an LDAP source for synchronization
D. Defining an LDAP source for authentication
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three are functions of the Control Center? (Select three.)
A. Consolidates logging information
B. Houses Email Spam Quarantine messages
C. Generates encrypted structured data indexes
D. Executes email policies
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 How does the LDAP synchronization process treat mail-enabled groups?
A. As a user list
B. As a distribution list
C. As domain groups
D. As an LDAP list
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the key purpose of the Alerts feature of the Control Center?
A. Sends email alerts to administrators or other parties
B. Sends SNMP notifications to administrators or other parties
C. Informs Symantec Mail Security 8300 administrators of antispam attacks detected by Symantec
D. Sends email notifications to senders who violate configured email security policies
Answer: A

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NO.5 On which two areas on the Control Center can you view license expiration status? (Select two.)
A. On the Control Center Dashboard
B. On the Licenses page
C. On the Alerts page
D. On the License Summary Report
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which statement is true about Content Compliance policies?
A. Available linked compound conditions include AND, OR, XOR, and NOT.
B. They are evaluated in the order listed on the main page of the Compliance tab.
C. There is a set limit to the number of conditions per compliance policy.
D. The order of conditions in a filter is important when a filter matches a message.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the function of the DNS MX record?
A. Specifies the IP addresses for gateway email servers that process Internet traffic
B. Redirects internal IM traffic to the 8300 Series to enforce IM security
C. Specifies the hostnames that accept SMTP email for a domain and the priority in which the hostnames
should be tried
D. Identifies the IP addresses associated with host names
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two Symantec Mail Security 8300 Control Center components can be used to store email
security violations? (Select two.)
A. Suspect virus quarantine
B. Email virus logging
C. Message audit logs
D. Email spam quarantine
E. Instant message quarantine
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which Symantec Mail Security 8300 component retrieves new and updated spam filters from
Symantec Security Response through secure HTTPS file transfer?
A. Conduit
B. Uplink
C. LiveUpdate
D. Sequencer
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the recommended deployment location for Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. In front of the external firewall
B. Behind the existing Exchange server
C. At the SMTP gateway
D. Integrated with the existing gateway SMTP server
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a content filtering capability of Symantec Mail Security 8300?
A. True file type scanning
B. Advanced phishing capability
C. Custom sieve editor
D. Word stemming analysis
Answer: A

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NO.12 What must be true in the DNS set up to establish load sharing via DNS round robin across multiple
SMTP gateway servers?
A. The preference numbers or weightings of the MX records must be the same.
B. The Ptr records for the servers must point to the same hostname.
C. The load sharing attribute must reference a valid hardware load balancer with an externally routable IP
address.
D. The preference numbers of the A records must be set to 10.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the function of the Symantec Mail Security 8300 Transformation Engine?
A. Based on configured policies, performs the required actions on the message
B. Based on configured policies, scans the message for attributes and violations
C. Based on default policies, stores spam and virus messages
D. Based on default policies, provides automated synchronization from LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.14 Under which condition is the 'Strip and Hold in Suspect Virus Quarantine' action available for use?
A. If a message is unscannable for viruses
B. If a message contains a suspicious attachment
C. If a message contains a mass-mailing worm
D. If a message contains a virus
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300?
(Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: ST0-079
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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NO.2 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.3 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.4 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.7 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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NO.10 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.15 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.20 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-067
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 In the context of IT compliance, what are standards?
A. a set of generally accepted best practices
B. a protector against a specific risk or threat
C. statements of goals and objectives
D. a collection of methods to evaluate compliance efforts
Answer: A

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NO.2 A user-defined report template is created from a predefined report template.
When a user-defined report template is deleted, what happens to the predefined report template?
A. The predefined template is also deleted.
B. The predefined template is automatically updated with the latest changes.
C. The predefined template is unaffected.
D. The predefined template reverts to the original template.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three functions are provided by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. provides the ability to attest to procedural controls
B. uses automated agentless or agent-based capabilities to audit and scan technical controls
C. verifies and confirms risk and posture compliance assessment
D. produces evidence of due care in an IT audit process
E. integrates the remediation process
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 Which two benefits does the Policy Module provide? (Select two.)
A. determines coverage gaps for multiple, overlapped regulatory, industry-specific, or best practices
frameworks
B. lowers the cost of policy creation and maintenance and measures policy knowledge and retention
C. defines, reviews, and disseminates written policies to end users as mapped to specific measurable
controls
D. integrates the policy compliance process with existing asset management systems
E. identifies problems within policies or internal controls and prevents policy compliance failure or data
breach
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which databases are created by Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Reporting and Analytics
during installation?
A. Production, Reporting, Evidence
B. bv, Compliance Manager, Policy Manager
C. Dashboard, Reporting, SMC
D. Evidence, Standards, Policies
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three are components of the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. web portal
B. Evidence database
C. ESM database
D. Cognos
E. application server
Answer: ABE

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NO.7 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for routing data collection,
evaluation, and reporting jobs?
A. application server
B. collector
C. load balancer
D. Management Service
Answer: C

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NO.8 In Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0, if an administrator wants to evaluate assets compared to a
referenced asset, what is used?
A. reference evaluation
B. baseline standard
C. gold standard
D. policy mapping
Answer: C

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NO.9 Data can be collected using which two data collectors in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0?
(Select two.)
A. ESM
B. XML
C. ODBC
D. CSV
E. AS400
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which information is displayed in the Monitor View?
A. jobs and reports
B. jobs and evaluation results
C. tasks and reports
D. data collections and evaluation results
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which four bv-Control platforms are supported in Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 Standards?
(Select four.)
A. Oracle
B. Windows
C. UNIX
D. Exchange
E. SQL
F. NetWare
Answer: ABCE

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NO.12 Which term refers to rules created by a government in response to legislation?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 component is responsible for most inter-component
transactions?
A. Directory Support Service
B. Data Processing Service
C. Information Server Service
D. Application Server Service
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the minimum number of computers required to configure each Data Processing Service role?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.15 What needs to be configured in order to collect common fields during a asset import using the default
data collector?
A. ESM data collector
B. CSV data collector
C. Automatic Entitlements Import job
D. a policy with associated assets
Answer: B

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NO.16 When does the RMS Console Configuration Wizard appear? (Select two.)
A. every time a new license has been added
B. the first time that a user opens the console after the installation or the upgrade
C. after a new Credential database has been applied to the user
D. after a bv-Control snap-in installation on the console computer
E. after the user has changed their default information server
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Communications between Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0 (CCS 9.0) components rely on a
signed digital certificate.
What is the root certificate authority in the CCS 9.0 environment?
A. Microsoft Certificate Authority Server
B. Certificate Management Console Server
C. CCS Management Service
D. Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two are modules of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 9.0? (Select two.)
A. Standards
B. bv-Control
C. ESM
D. Internet Security
E. Entitlements
Answer: AE

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NO.19 Which three database maintenance tasks must be performed outside of Symantec Control Compliance
Suite 9.0? (Select three.)
A. purge evidence
B. back up the databases
C. purge stale data
D. shrink the databases
E. defragment the databases
Answer: BDE

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NO.20 Which term refers to organizational rules or requirements that provide guidance to employees?
A. framework
B. standard
C. policy
D. benchmark
E. regulation
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 250-270
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix)
Questions et réponses: 237 Q&As

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NO.1 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

Symantec   250-270   250-270 examen   certification 250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.2 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270 examen   250-270   250-270

NO.3 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

Symantec examen   certification 250-270   250-270   250-270   certification 250-270

NO.4 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-270 examen   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.6 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-270 examen   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.7 An administrator successfully creates a disk pool for Symantec NetBackup 7.0, then attempts to
create a new storage unit using the bpstuadd command. In the bpstuadd command, the storage unit
name is specified as diskpool1_storageunit-#01. An error message is returned indicating the storage unit
name is invalid.
How should the storage unit name be modified to fix the problem?
A. remove the "-" from the name
B. remove all the numbers from the name
C. remove the "#" from the name
D. shorten the name to fewer than twenty characters
Answer: C

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NO.8 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-270   certification 250-270   250-270 examen

NO.9 How long will a failed restore job remain in an Incomplete state prior to being moved to a Done state?
A. one day
B. three days
C. seven days
D. until the administrator cancels the restore job
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270

NO.10 Which two items are required to use the Catalog Recovery Wizard? (Select two.)
A. BMR file
B. media used for the catalog backup
C. catalog backup policy
D. DR file
E. critical policy list
Answer: BD

Symantec   certification 250-270   250-270

NO.11 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   certification 250-270   250-270 examen

NO.12 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. FlashBackup
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270 examen   250-270 examen   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270

NO.13 A Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the top tier?
A. media server
B. enterprise client
C. client
D. master server
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

Symantec examen   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270

NO.15 An administrator has created three BasicDisk storage units within the NetBackup Administration
Console (STU-A, STU-B, and STU-C). The administrator needs to create a backup policy that evenly
rotates use of each of these storage units during backup.
How can the policies or storage units be set up to accomplish this?
A. set up each of the policies to use "Any Available" storage unit
B. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Failover" option for storage unit selection
C. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Least recently selected storage unit" option
D. set up a storage unit group for these STUs and select "Choose storage units based on order specified
above" option
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270 examen   certification 250-270   250-270 examen

NO.16 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

Symantec   250-270   250-270   250-270 examen

NO.17 A restore must be performed. The administrator is trying to view the valid images for a client, but the
following error occurs:
WARNING: Server does not contain any valid images.
Which two may be incorrectly configured? (Select two.)
A. schedule type for restores
B. destination client for restores
C. server to use for backups and restores
D. media server for backups and restores
E. policy types for restore
Answer: CE

Symantec   250-270   certification 250-270   250-270 examen   250-270 examen   250-270

NO.18 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters.
What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware
upgrade occurred?
A. Media ID generation
B. Media ID display
C. media type mapping
D. barcode rules
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-270   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270

NO.19 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

Symantec examen   250-270   250-270 examen   250-270 examen

NO.20 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: ST0-093
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?
A. Network Monitor Server
B. FTP Prevent Server
C. Web Prevent Server
D. Endpoint Prevent Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 What must a Data Loss Prevention administrator recycle for Network Monitor filter configuration
changes to take effect?
A. VontuMonitorController
B. PacketCapture
C. FileReader
D. Network Monitor
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A. manually quarantine files
B. automatically quarantine files on file shares
C. modify a response within a policy
D. automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E. apply digital rights to content
Answer: A,E

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.4 Which server encrypts the message when using a Modify SMTP Message response rule?
A. Encryption Gateway
B. SMTP Prevent Server
C. MTA Server
D. Enforce Server
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.5 What is the primary function of Endpoint Prevent?
A. encrypts confidential data being sent over the network or copied to removable media
B. finds confidential data and quarantines the data to a central repository
C. disables end-user devices that are unauthorized by a company's data security policies
D. stops confidential data from being sent over the network or copied to removable media
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which feature is a key benefit of on-screen notification?
A. uses on-screen notification in different languages
B. educates the user about the violation that has occurred
C. stops the movement of data that violates policies
D. notifies the user that the Endpoint Agent is active
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A. Network Protect
B. Endpoint Discover
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.8 What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?
A. string matching
B. port range
C. either UDP or TCP
D. protocol signature
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   certification ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.9 What is the sequence of message processing for Network Monitor?
A. Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection -> Incident Writer
B. Monitor Controller -> Detection -> File Reader -> Incident Writer
C. File Reader -> IncidentPersister -> Manager -> Notifier
D. Request Processor -> Packet Capture -> File Reader -> Detection
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-093 examen   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen   ST0-093

NO.10 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A. date fields
B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C. column names in the first row
D. country, state, or province names
Answer: C

Symantec   certification ST0-093   certification ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.11 The user interface (UI) will be used to upgrade to Symantec Data Loss Prevention 10.5. A Data Loss
Prevention administrator will be logging in to the Enforce Server from a desktop to perform the upgrade.
The Vontu\Protect\config\Manager.properties file is set to default settings. Which port must be open to
connect to the upgrader application?
A. 8080
B. 8090
C. 8100
D. 8300
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.12 Which component has an obfuscated (hidden) log?
A. Endpoint Agent
B. Enforce Server
C. Network Monitor
D. Network Discover
Answer: D

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NO.13 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A. Incident Dashboard
B. Incident Snapshot
C. Incident List
D. Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

certification Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.14 Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual
signatures? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. IM: AIM
D. SNMP
E. TFTP
Answer: A,C

Symantec examen   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.15 To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?
A. drop
B. drop_pcap
C. drop_discover
D. drop_smtp
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093   certification ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.16 Which products run on the same detection server?
A. Network Protect and Network Discover
B. Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C. Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D. Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093 examen

NO.17 What should be used to exclude email going to any email address in the partner.com domain?
A. IP filter
B. L7 filter
C. Content filter
D. Sender/User Matches pattern
Answer: B

certification Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   ST0-093

NO.18 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A. policy creation
B. detection of incidents
C. inspection of network communication
D. identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.19 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-093   ST0-093   certification ST0-093

NO.20 What are two available options when accessing the Configure Server page to configure protocol filters?
(Select two.)
A. HTTPS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ICMP
E. UDP
Answer: B,C

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