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Code d'Examen: E20-597
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to perform a complete backup of a SQL server with three
databases. Which save set name should be used?
A.MSSQL:DB
B.MSSQL:*
C.MSSQL:ALLDB
D.MSSQL:
Answer: D

EMC   E20-597   E20-597   E20-597

NO.2 Refer to the exhibit. An EMC NetWorker customer has two data zones, A and B, with autochanger AC1
and AC2, respectively, with four drives each. AC1 is configured as a dedicated autochanger and AC2 is
configured as a shared autochanger.
Two drives of AC2 are statically assigned. How many drives of AC2 can be shared in Zone A?
A. 2
B. 0
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a characteristic of VCB backups in EMC NetWorker?
A.Supports image and file-based backups
B.Requires a NetWorker client on each virtual machine
C.Requires a storage node on the VCB backup proxy
D.Does not support LAN-free backup
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Microsoft VSS component is responsible for creation and maintenance of a shadow copy?
A. Requestor
B. Provider
C. Writer
D. Interceptor
Answer: B

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NO.5 A backup administrator is configuring an EMC NetWorker embedded storage node within an EMC Disk
Library. To ensure that the embedded storage node is used to read the data during clone operations, what
is required?
A.Add the Disk Library engine's hostname to the "Read hostname" field in the device properties.
B.Set the clone storage node value for the embedded storage node client resource to itself.
C.Create a client for the embedded storage node.
D.Create a clone pool and assign the appropriate rights to it.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When adding an EMC NetWorker server's name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service
must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect?
A. nsrd
B. nsrexecd
C. nsrindexd
D. nsrdb
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a characteristic of EMC NetWorker SnapImage module backups?
A.Block-level backups of dense file systems
B.Fast block-level backups of a file system mounted on a proxy server
C.Immediate recovery of a file system from a persistent snapshot
D.SAN-based image-level backup and recovery of file systems
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer using EMC NetWorker Power edition attempts to set server parallelism to 96. When saving
the changes they notice that the server parallelism reverts back to 64.
What action needs to be taken to set server parallelism to 96.?
A. Set device max sessions to 96.
B. Configure group parallelism to 96.
C. Enable diagnostic mode.
D. Add NetWorker Storage Node Enabler Code.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?
A. The developer of the native application provides a NetWorker module to allow for protection of their
application with NetWorker.
B. The NetWorker module runs on the NetWorker server and acts as an intermediary for data coming
from the NetWorker client module.
C. The NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between NetWorker and the native application.
D. The NetWorker module always takes the place of the standard NetWorker client allowing for backup of
applications and file systems.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit. In an EMC NetWorker environment, the storage node sn1 is down for maintenance.
According to the client properties, what happens when the backup of the client starts?
A. The backup data will be sent to the storage node sn2.
B. The backup will fail as the storage node sn1 is not available.
C. The backup data will be sent to any available storage node.
D. The backup data will be sent to the NetWorker server.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-597   E20-597   E20-597

NO.11 What is the backup command specified in the EMC NetWorker client resource for EMC Centera
backups?
A.savepnpc
B.nsrdasv
C.nsrndmp_save
D.nsrsnap_vss_save.exe
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a characteristic of cloud volumes in EMC NetWorker?
A.Infinitely appendable
B.Recyclable
C.Space cannot be reclaimed.
D.Data cannot be compressed or encrypted.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have an EMC NetWorker server with one storage node. There is an autoloader with four tape drives.
Two drives each are dedicated to the server and storage node. A new Celerra has been added to the
network with 500 GB of data. What must be done to back up the data on the Celerra?
A. Create a storage node on the Celerra and select NDMP in the "type of storage node" field.
B. Configure a device on the NetWorker server as an NDMP device and back up the Celerra to this
device.
C. Configure a client for the Celerra to use DSA and back up its data to either the NetWorker server or
storage node.
D. Create an NDMP backup pool and add this pool to a save group with other clients.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have successfully configured three SQL servers for backup with the EMC NetWorker Module for
SQL. These servers are configured as follows:
Scheduled backup of the group shows that all SQL data from the three servers was successfully backed
up. However, when you attempt to recover the SQL data using the standard NetWorker user GUI, you
only see file system data to recover.
What must you do to recover the SQL data backed up with the NetWorker module?
A. Modify the browse time within the NetWorker user GUI to show the period for which you want to
recover.
B. Use the Microsoft SQL Server native tools to recover the data from NetWorker.
C. Modify the save set to include an instance or database name after MSSQL:.
D. Launch the NetWorker User for SQL.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer has the following EMC NetWorker configuration:
How many nsrlcpd processes are running on the NetWorker server?
A. 4
B. 12
C. 16
D. 0
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-335
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 How does Delta Set Extension help in an SRDF/A deployment?
A. Reduces RPO
B. Reduces the amount of required cache
C. Improves response time
D. Absorbs bursts of host writes
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is recommended before creating a TimeFinder/Mirror replica?
A. Ensure that the production application using the source devices is shut down
B. Ensure that all writes from the production application using the source devices are paused!
C. Ensure that the BCVs are not being actively accessed
D. Set the BCVs to a Not Ready state
Answer: Chttp://www.scribd.com/doc/37352326/Emc-Study-2

NO.3 In symmetric V-max series array running Enginuity 5874, which device is used as a pass-through
device for Auto provisioning?
A. VDEV
B. VCM
C. ACLX
D. SFS
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been asked to create a configuration for a single engine Symmetric V-Max array with 8 DAEs
and 64 drivers. They would like to have the data devices with RAID 5(7+1) protection.
What would be the largest number of members you would recommend for a stripped metavolume.?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command is used to set or reset HBA port flags on Symmetric arrays running Enable 7.0
Enginuity 5874?
A. symcfg
B. symmask
C. symconfigure
D. symaccess
Answer: D

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NO.6 Diagnostic messaging for the GNS daemon is written to which file?
A. /7SYMAPI/emc/storgnsd .log0
B. /SYMAPI/log/storgnsd.log0
C. /SYMAPl/usr/storgnsd log0
D. /SYMAPl/bin/storgnsd log0
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where is the volume Logix Database maintained starting with DMX-3?
A. VCM gatekeeper
B. Symmetrix logical Volume
C. Symmetrix File System
D. VCM database.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit
What is the correct state for the Standard and Rl-BCV prior to issuing a symreplicate start command?
A. Synchronized
B. Suspended
C. Split
D. Write-Enable
Answer: C

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335 examen

NO.9 Open Replicator pull will be used to move data between a third party array and a Symmetrix V-Max
array.
What is recommended before starting the Open Replicator session?
A. Ensure that the remote devices are Host read/write enabled
B. Ensure that the control devices are Not Ready
C. Ensure that the remote devices are Host inaccessible
D. Ensure that the control devices are Write Disabled
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-335   E20-335

NO.10 One of the requirements, during an Open Replicator implementation is that production application
should not be implemented by open Replication session. An analysis of the control Symmetrix showed
that FA ports are currently 70% utilized. How should pace and ceiling be configured?
A. Pace should be set to 0 and Ceiling should be left at the default
B. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 30
C. Pace should be left at the default and Ceiling set to 100
D. Pace should be set to 9 and Ceiling should be set to 70
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which file contains the parameter that can change the default behavior of SYMCLI operations, and
there control actions?
A. SYMCLI options File
B. SYMAPI Options File
C. SYMCLI Command File
D. SYMAPI Command File
Answer: B

EMC   E20-335   E20-335   E20-335 examen   E20-335

NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
A database server has its logs stored on a volume on the log source Symmetrix V-Max array and its data
stored on a volume on the data source Symmetrix V-Max array. Both source Symmetrix V-Max array
frames replicate data to the target Symmetrix V-Max array at the Remote site. There are two device
groups that have been defined:
One group for the data volume on the Symmetrix containing the data LUNs
One group for the log volume on the Symmetrix containing the log LUNS
What happens if the SRDF inks between the Symmetrix contain the data LUNs and the target Symmetrix
were to fail?
A. The R2 data in the database remains consistent because Enginuity Consistency Assist (RDFECAJ
technology would ensure data consistency).
B. The data in the database becomes inconsistent at the Remote site.
C. An SRDF failover would be initiated on all volumes and processing will automatically be switched over
to the Remote site
D. The R2 volumes in the Symmetrix V-Max containing the log LUNs would become write-disabled to the
database server
Answer: C

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NO.13 On the Symmetrix platform, which type of RAID protection ensures the best random write performance?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID S
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.14 An SRDF failover has been executed during the testing phase of an implementation. What is the
expected status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing SRDF failover operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Wnte Disabled; R2 Read/Wnte
C. R1 Read/Wnte, R2 Read/Wnte
D. R1 Read/Wnte. R2 Wnte Disabled
Answer: Bhttp://www.scribd.com/doc/29541661/Srdf-Operations-white-Paper

NO.15 What is required to ensure the integrity of data on the R2 volume during a SRDF fallback operation?
A. Remove entries from the file system table
B. Stop any applications that are accessing the R2 volume
C. Disable journaling on the file system
D. Suspend the RDF link
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-016
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

E20-016 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-016.html

NO.1 The Present Value (PV) of $50,000 in 5 years, with a discount rate of 10% each year, is represented in
the exhibit.
A company invests $98,000 on new monitoring software for its critical database. An annual yield of
$50,000 is expected.
What is the first time the company will see its investment yielding positive returns?
A. Year 1
B. Year 2
C. Year 3
D. Year 4
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company wants to invest in a storage networking project. What are the key business value
parameters that must be considered when making a decision to proceed with the investment?
A. Return on investment and payback period
B. Net present value and break-even point
C. Net present value and return on investment
D. Payback period and operating cost
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

EMC   E20-016   E20-016

NO.4 A company's business operations depend on the following three applications:
A = Supply chain management
B = CAD/CAE (design)
C = e-Commerce
Which application classes are associated with these applications?
A. A=Enterprise; B=Workgroup; C=Externally networked
B. A=Externally networked; B=Workgroup; C=Enterprise
C. A=Workgroup; B=Enterprise; C=Externally networked
D. A=Workgroup; B=Externally networked; C=Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.5 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.7 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

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NO.8 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.9 A redundant switch contains eight-port cards with four ports per card. If one of the port cards is
unavailable for eight minutes before it is hot swapped, what is the resultant path minute of SAN
performance degradation?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

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NO.10 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

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NO.11 A company's 20 file servers were consolidated onto a NAS device at a cost of $350,000 for the
hardware and $75,000 for implementation services. The consolidated/replaced servers were written off
for the remaining book value of $75,000. The company will realize $60,000 per month due to this
consolidation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company's initial
investments?
A. 44%; Month 8
B. 44%; Month 9
C. 70%; Month 8
D. 70%; Month 9
Answer: B

EMC   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016

NO.12 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company is comparing two technology options for their IT environment. Option 1 is to retain the
existing legacy environment, and Option 2 will require the replacement of the current solution with a new
solution.
Option 1:
-Operation costs including maintenance of the current infrastructure = $300,000 per year -Investment in
additional storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial cost of the new solution = $1,000,000 -Operation costs with the new infrastructure = $150,000 per
year -Investment in additional storage = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off cost for the current solution is $50,000. As a business analyst, what would you
recommend to the company based on the TCO?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

EMC   E20-016   E20-016   E20-016 examen   E20-016 examen

NO.14 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

EMC   E20-016   E20-016   certification E20-016

NO.15 An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years.
Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
- Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
- Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
- From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS
device that will no longer be needed.
What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-805
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-805   E20-805   E20-805

NO.2 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

EMC   E20-805   certification E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.3 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-805   E20-805   E20-805 examen   certification E20-805

NO.4 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-805   E20-805   E20-805 examen   certification E20-805

NO.5 Which Vblock offering is most appropriate in this scenario?
A. Vblock 0
B. Vblock 1
C. Vblock 1U
D. Vblock 2
Answer: C

EMC examen   certification E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.6 Performance is a major factor in the deployment for the customer. The customer also mentions the
need for a backup solution that minimizes the impact to production. Furthermore, the customer wants
frequent datastore checks to validate integrity.
Which solution supports the customer's goals?
A. Use Replication Manager VSS integration and a VNX clone to create a copy of the production
LUN.
Perform regular database checks against the copy.
B. Use Replication Manager and VNX Snap to create a space-efficient copy.
Perform regular database checks using eseutil.
C. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a VNX clone.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
D. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a space-efficient copy with VNX Snap.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805

NO.7 Which disaster recovery solution would best fit the customer s needs for the VMFS datastores?
A. RecoverPoint/SE and VMware Site Recovery Manager
B. Replicator with VMware Site Recovery Manager
C. SRDF with VMware Site Recovery Manager
D. MirrorView/A with VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.8 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805 examen   certification E20-805

NO.9 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-805   E20-805   certification E20-805   certification E20-805   E20-805 examen
Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.10 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-805   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805
Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.11 As part of a legal discovery request, the customer must make available a functioning copy of the SQL
environment as it existed at the time of the TLog3 backups. What would be the most efficient way to
restore the SQL server to that point to make the data available?
A. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just before TLog3 backups were completed 2 -
Roll SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
B. 1 - Restore the Monday SQL Server backup 2 - Apply the Tuesday SQL differential backup 3 - Roll SQL
forward by applying TLog3 backups
C. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog3 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL backward by subtracting TLog4 backups
D. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog2 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E20-805   E20-805   E20-805 examen

NO.12 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805

NO.13 How can you leverage the Replication Manager (RM) infrastructure to securely provide copies of
production SQL data to the software development team?
A. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to schedule their own replications.
B. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to schedule their own
replications.
C. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to create their own replication jobs.
D. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to create their own
replication jobs.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805 examen   E20-805   certification E20-805

NO.14 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   certification E20-805   certification E20-805

NO.15 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E20-805   E20-805 examen   E20-805 examen   E20-805
Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.16 Which utility should you recommend to the customer to assist in migrating to the proposed
infrastructure?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. SAN Copy
D. VMware vMotion
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-805   E20-805

NO.17 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805   certification E20-805
Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

NO.18 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   certification E20-805

NO.19 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

certification EMC   E20-805 examen   E20-805   E20-805 examen   E20-805

NO.20 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-805   certification E20-805

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EMC E22-192, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: E22-192
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

E22-192 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E22-192.html

NO.1 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

EMC   E22-192   E22-192

NO.2 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192 examen

NO.3 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E22-192   E22-192   E22-192   certification E22-192

NO.4 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

certification EMC   E22-192   E22-192 examen   E22-192   E22-192 examen

NO.5 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192 examen   E22-192   E22-192

NO.6 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192

NO.7 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192   E22-192 examen   E22-192

NO.8 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192 examen   E22-192

NO.9 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

EMC examen   E22-192   E22-192 examen

NO.10 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

EMC   certification E22-192   E22-192 examen   E22-192 examen

NO.11 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-192 examen   E22-192 examen   E22-192   certification E22-192

NO.12 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

EMC   E22-192   certification E22-192   certification E22-192

NO.13 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

EMC   E22-192   E22-192   E22-192

NO.14 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

EMC   E22-192   E22-192   E22-192 examen   certification E22-192

NO.15 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

EMC   E22-192   certification E22-192

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Les meilleures EMC EVP-101 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EVP-101
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 31 Q&As

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NO.1 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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NO.2 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
Answer: A

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NO.3 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-918
Nom d'Examen: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

EMC   E20-918   E20-918

NO.2 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

EMC   E20-918   E20-918 examen

NO.4 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.5 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918

NO.9 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.10 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.12 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918 examen

NO.13 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.14 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

certification EMC   E20-918   E20-918

NO.15 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918

On doit faire un bon choix pour passer le test EMC E20-918. C'est une bonne affaire à choisir la Q&A de Pass4Test comme le guide d'étude, parce que vous allez obtenir la Certification EMC E20-918 en dépensant d'un petit invertissement. D'ailleur, la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an est aussi gratuite pour vous. C'est vraiment un bon choix.